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Question 1. Which setting determines the default fiscal year start month for an organization? A) Business Hours B) Fiscal Year Settings C) Currency Management D) Locale Settings Answer: B Explanation: Fiscal Year Settings let admins define the start month and structure of the fiscal year for reporting purposes. Question 2. In the Company Information page, where can you view the default currency for the org? A) Business Hours section B) Locale Settings tab C) Currency Management area D) Default Settings pane Answer: C Explanation: Currency Management displays the corporate default currency and any active additional currencies. Question 3. Which UI setting controls whether users can see recently viewed items on the Home page? A) Global Search Settings B) List View Settings C) Lightning Experience Settings D) Compact Layout Settings Answer: C
Explanation: Lightning Experience Settings include the “Enable Recently Viewed Items” toggle for the Home page. Question 4. To allow users to search on custom fields, which configuration must be enabled? A) Global Search Settings – “Include Custom Objects” B) Search Layouts – “Search Results” C) List View Controls – “Searchable” D) Enhanced List Views – “Allow Search” Answer: B Explanation: Search Layouts define which fields appear in search results for each object, making custom fields searchable. Question 5. When activating a new corporate currency, which of the following is true? A) Existing records automatically convert to the new currency. B) Users must manually select the currency on each record. C) Currency conversion rates must be entered before activation. D) The new currency replaces the default currency. Answer: C Explanation: Before activating a new currency, you must define its conversion rate relative to the corporate currency. Question 6. What impact does adding a holiday have on case escalation rules? A) Escalations ignore holidays and continue 24/7. B) Escalations are paused during defined holiday periods. C) Holidays only affect business hours, not escalations. D) Escalations are automatically reassigned to a backup queue.
C) Permission Set D) None – profiles are unchanged. Answer: D Explanation: Adding a custom object does not automatically create a new profile; existing profiles must be manually edited. Question 10. What is the primary purpose of a “Frozen” user status? A) Permanently delete the user. B) Prevent login while retaining record ownership. C) Deactivate the user and reassign all records. D) Temporarily lock the user after failed login attempts. Answer: B Explanation: Freezing a user stops login access but keeps the user record and ownership intact for audit purposes. Question 11. A user cannot log in because their password has expired. Which admin action resolves this? A) Reset the user’s password. B) Unlock the user’s account. C) Freeze the user and reactivate. D) Change the user’s profile. Answer: A Explanation: Resetting the password forces the user to set a new one, resolving an expired‑password issue. Question 12. Which of the following best describes a “Standard Profile”?
A) A profile that can be cloned but not edited directly. B) A profile that cannot be cloned or deleted. C) A profile that is automatically assigned to new users. D) A profile that only contains object‑level permissions. Answer: B Explanation: Standard profiles are provided by Salesforce, cannot be deleted, and have limited editability. Question 13. To enforce a strong password policy, which setting must be configured? A) Session Settings – “Timeout Value” B) Password Policies – “Minimum Password Length” C) Login IP Ranges – “Trusted IPs” D) Network Access – “Login Hours” Answer: B Explanation: Password Policies allow admins to set length, complexity, expiration, and history requirements. Question 14. Which security control restricts login attempts to specific IP ranges? A) Session Settings B) Login Hours C) Network Access – “Trusted IP Ranges” D) Identity Verification – “Two‑Factor Authentication” Answer: C Explanation: Trusted IP Ranges in Network Access limit where users can log in without additional verification.
Explanation: The role hierarchy grants record visibility upward; higher roles see records owned by lower roles. Question 18. Which type of sharing rule is based on field values rather than record ownership? A) Owner‑Based Sharing Rule B) Criteria‑Based Sharing Rule C) Manual Sharing D) Role‑Based Sharing Rule Answer: B Explanation: Criteria‑Based Sharing Rules share records that meet specific field criteria. Question 19. A public group is best used for: A) Defining field‑level security. B) Granting access to a set of users across multiple roles. C) Setting default record types. D) Controlling API access. Answer: B Explanation: Public groups aggregate users, roles, and other groups to simplify sharing and permission assignments. Question 20. When would you use manual sharing instead of a sharing rule? A) To share a large number of records automatically. B) To share a single record with a specific user temporarily. C) To grant access to all records of an object. D) To enforce field‑level security.
Answer: B Explanation: Manual sharing is ideal for ad‑hoc, record‑by‑record sharing with specific users or groups. Question 21. Field‑Level Security (FLS) is configured at which level? A) Object level only. B) Profile and Permission Set level. C) Role hierarchy level. D) Organization‑Wide Defaults level. Answer: B Explanation: FLS is set per profile or permission set, controlling visibility and editability of individual fields. Question 22. Which folder type can be shared with a public group for dashboard access? A) Report Folder B) Document Folder C) Email Template Folder D) Dashboard Folder Answer: D Explanation: Dashboard folders control who can view or edit dashboards, and they can be shared with groups. Question 23. In the Object Manager, which relationship type allows child record deletion to cascade to the parent? A) Lookup (optional) B) Master‑Detail (required) C) Hierarchical
C) The field to be recreated automatically. D) No impact on the formula. Answer: B Explanation: Removing a field used in a formula makes the formula invalid, causing errors upon evaluation. Question 27. Which field type can summarize data from child records? A) Formula Field B) Roll‑up Summary Field C) Text Field D) Picklist (Multi‑Select) Answer: B Explanation: Roll‑up Summary fields aggregate child record values (COUNT, SUM, MIN, MAX) for master‑detail relationships. Question 28. A cross‑object formula can reference fields from a: A) Parent object only. B) Child object only. C) Sibling object only. D) Any object via lookup relationships. Answer: A Explanation: Cross‑object formulas can pull data from a parent object through a lookup or master‑detail relationship. Question 29. Which field type is best for storing a list of selectable values that may change over time?
A) Text B) Picklist (Multi‑Select) C) Picklist (Single‑Select) D) Checkbox Answer: C Explanation: A single‑select picklist allows admins to modify the list of values without affecting existing records. Question 30. When assigning a page layout, which element determines which users receive it? A) Record Type B) Profile C) Role D) Permission Set Answer: B Explanation: Page layouts are assigned to profiles (and can be further differentiated by record type). Question 31. Record Types are primarily used to: A) Control field‑level security. B) Separate business processes and picklist values. C) Manage user login credentials. D) Define API names for objects. Answer: B Explanation: Record Types allow different business processes, page layouts, and picklist values for the same object.
Question 35. When configuring an Opportunity stage, which setting determines whether the stage is considered “Closed Won”? A) Probability value of 100% B) Stage Name ending with “Won” C) Stage Type set to “Closed” D) Forecast Category set to “Commit” Answer: C Explanation: The Stage Type “Closed” marks the stage as a final state (Won or Lost). Question 36. Which object is the primary target of the Lead Conversion process? A) Account only B) Contact only C) Account, Contact, and optionally Opportunity D) Opportunity only Answer: C Explanation: Lead conversion creates an Account, Contact, and optionally an Opportunity in one transaction. Question 37. Lead Assignment Rules are evaluated based on: A) Lead source only. B) Criteria defined in the rule entries. C) The owner’s role hierarchy. D) The user’s profile. Answer: B
Explanation: Rule entries contain criteria (e.g., country, rating) that determine which queue or user receives the lead. Question 38. Which feature enables automatic email responses to leads submitted via Web‑to‑Lead? A) Lead Auto‑Response Rules B) Lead Assignment Rules C) Workflow Rule on Lead object D) Process Builder flow Answer: A Explanation: Lead Auto‑Response Rules send predefined email templates when leads are created. Question 39. Campaign Hierarchies are useful for: A) Managing duplicate leads. B) Grouping related campaigns for reporting. C) Assigning case owners. D) Automating opportunity creation. Answer: B Explanation: Hierarchies let you roll up responses and ROI across parent‑child campaigns. Question 40. Which relationship between a Contact and an Account is defined by default? A) Master‑Detail B) Lookup (required) C) Hierarchical D) Many‑to‑Many
D) Case Comment Visibility Answer: A Explanation: The “Enable Case Comment Editing” option lets users modify their comments after submission. Question 44. Case Assignment Rules are evaluated in which order? A) Alphabetical order of rule names. B) Order of rule entries (top to bottom). C) Random order. D) Based on the user’s role hierarchy. Answer: B Explanation: Rules are processed sequentially; the first matching entry assigns the case. Question 45. What does the “Auto‑Response Rule” for cases primarily do? A) Assigns the case to a queue. B) Sends an acknowledgment email to the case originator. C) Escalates the case after a time threshold. D) Updates the case status to “New”. Answer: B Explanation: Auto‑Response Rules trigger an email to the customer when a case is created. Question 46. Which feature enables customers to submit cases via email? A) Web‑to‑Case B) Email‑to‑Case C) Case Feed
D) Knowledge Base Answer: B Explanation: Email‑to‑Case creates cases from incoming emails to a designated address. Question 47. In Salesforce Knowledge, what is a “Data Category” used for? A) Controlling field‑level security. B) Organizing articles for navigation and access. C) Defining article version numbers. D) Setting article publishing dates. Answer: B Explanation: Data Categories group articles and control visibility based on user permissions. Question 48. Which Experience Cloud feature allows external users to vote on ideas? A) Cases B) Knowledge Articles C) Ideas Tab D) Chatter Groups Answer: C Explanation: The Ideas tab lets community members submit and vote on ideas. Question 49. The Service Console’s “Utility Bar” is used for: A. Displaying a list of recent cases. B. Providing quick access to tools like notes, macros, and a softphone. C. Configuring case assignment rules. D. Managing user profiles.
Answer: A Explanation: Feed Tracking lets users follow a record’s changes; updates appear in their Chatter feed. Question 53. To share a file with a specific user without altering the record’s sharing settings, you would: A) Upload the file to Files and share with the user. B) Attach the file to a record and set OWD to Private. C) Create a public link to the file. D) Add the file to a Chatter Group. Answer: A Explanation: Files can be shared directly with users, granting access independent of record sharing. Question 54. Which mobile feature allows users to perform actions without opening the full record? A) Quick Actions on the Compact Layout B) Lightning App Builder Mobile Pages C) Mobile Navigation Menu D) Mobile Settings – “Enable Inline Editing” Answer: A Explanation: Compact Layouts display key fields and quick actions (e.g., Log a Call) directly in the mobile list view. Question 55. When customizing the mobile app, which metadata type controls the actions displayed on a record’s mobile view? A) Lightning Page B) Mobile Navigation Item
C) Compact Layout D) Mobile Action Layout Answer: C Explanation: Compact Layout defines the fields and quick actions shown on mobile record previews. Question 56. Which AppExchange licensing model allows the provider to push upgrades to customers automatically? A) Unmanaged Package B) Managed Package C) Open‑Source Package D) ISVforce License Answer: B Explanation: Managed Packages are versioned and can be upgraded centrally by the provider. Question 57. A “Data Import Wizard” is best suited for: A) Importing millions of records. B) Importing up to 50,000 records for standard objects. C) Performing complex data transformations. D) Updating records based on external IDs. Answer: B Explanation: The Data Import Wizard handles up to 50,000 records and provides a guided UI for standard objects. Question 58. Which tool allows you to schedule recurring data loads without writing code? A) Data Loader (command‑line)
