4006 Midterm g2 q based actual revision test /25/26, Exams of Nursing

4006 Midterm g2 q based actual revision test /25/26

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2025/2026

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4006 Midterm g2 q based actual revision
test /25/26
1.
The nurse is preparing to perform a physical examination on a
client who
has cardiopulmonary disease. Knowing this about the
client, the nurse is alert
for the presence of which of the following
when checking the client's nails? Select one:
a.
Clubbing
b.
Bands in nailbeds
c. Yellow discoloration
d. Splinter hemorrhages: A-
clubbing
2. The nurse is auscultating the client's lungs and notes normal
vesicular
sounds as being which of the following?
Select one:
a. Medium-pitched blowing sounds with inspiration equalling
expiration
b. Loud, high-pitched, hollow
sounds with
expiration
longer
than
inspiration
c. Soft, breezy, low-pitched sounds with longer inspiration
d.
Sounds created by air moving through small airways:
c. Soft, breezy,
low-pitched
sounds with longer inspiration
3.
During the physical examination, the nurse should use which
part of the hand to assess characteristics such as consistency,
contour, and texture in the client's glands?
Select one:
a.
Dorsum of the hand
b. Pads of the fingers
c.
Palmar surface of the hand
d.
Fingertip grasp of the tissue: b. Pads of the
fingers
pf3
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pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
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pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19
pf1a
pf1b
pf1c
pf1d
pf1e
pf1f
pf20
pf21
pf22
pf23
pf24
pf25
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4006 Midterm g2 q based actual revision

test /25/

  1. The nurse is preparing to perform a physical examination on a client who has cardiopulmonary disease. Knowing this about the client, the nurse is alert for the presence of which of the following when checking the client's nails? Select one: a. Clubbing b. Bands in nailbeds c. Yellow discoloration d. Splinter hemorrhages: A- clubbing
  2. The nurse is auscultating the client's lungs and notes normal vesicular sounds as being which of the following? Select one: a. Medium-pitched blowing sounds with inspiration equalling expiration b. Loud, high-pitched, hollow sounds with expiration longer than inspiration c. Soft, breezy, low-pitched sounds with longer inspiration d. Sounds created by air moving through small airways: c. Soft, breezy, low-pitched sounds with longer inspiration
  3. During the physical examination, the nurse should use which part of the hand to assess characteristics such as consistency, contour, and texture in the client's glands? Select one: a. Dorsum of the hand b. Pads of the fingers c. Palmar surface of the hand d. Fingertip grasp of the tissue: b. Pads of the fingers

2 / 40

  1. If a low-pitched murmur is suspected with prior assessment, which of the following is the best position for the client when the nurse auscultates the apical site? Select one: a. Sitting up b. Standing c. Lying on the left side d. Dorsal recumbent: c. Lying on the left side
  2. Which of the following positions maximizes the nurse's ability to assess the client's upper body for symmetry? Select one: a. Sitting b. Supine c. Prone d. Dorsal recumbent: a. Sitting
  3. The nurse is observing a new staff member work with the client. Of the following activities, which one has the greatest possibility of contributing to a nosocomial infection and requires correction? Select one: a. Washing hands before applying a dressing b. Taping a plastic bag to the bed rail for tissue disposal c. Placing a Foley catheter bag on the bed when transferring a client d. Using alcohol to cleanse the skin before starting an intravenous line: c. Placing a Foley catheter bag on the bed when transferring a client
  4. Which one of the following indicates that the nurse is using surgical aseptic technique? Select one: a. Inserting an intravenous catheter b. Placing soiled linen in moisture-resistant bags c. Disposing of syringes in puncture-proof containers d. Washing hands before changing a dressing: a. Inserting an intravenous

4 / 40 acute inflammatory process? Select one: a. A blanching of the skin b. A decrease in temperature at the site c. A decrease in the number of white blood cells (WBCs) d. A release of histamine that adds to the pain response: d. A release of histamine that adds to the pain response

  1. The nurse works in a small rural hospital with a wide variety of clients. Of the clients admitted this afternoon, the nurse recognizes that the individual with which of the following conditions is most susceptible to infection? Select one: a. Burns b. Diabetes c. Pulmonary emphysema d. Peripheral vascular disease: a. Burns
  2. The client has a large, deep abdominal incision that requires a dressing. The incision is packed with sterile 1.75-cm packing and covered with a dry, 10 × 10-cm gauze. When changing the dressing, the nurse accidentally drops the packing onto the client's abdomen. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select one: a. Add alcohol to the packing and insert it into the incision. b. Throw the packing away, and prepare a new one. c.Pick up the packing with sterile forceps, and gently place it into the incision. d. Rinse the packing with sterile water, and put the packing into the incision with sterile gloves.: b. Throw the packing away, and prepare a new one.
  3. The nurse uses the Braden Scale in the extended care facility to determine the client's risk for pressure ulcer development. Which score, based on this scale, places the client at the highest level of risk? Select one:

5 / 40 a. 9 or below b. 10 to 12 c. 13 to 14 d. 15 to 16: a. 9 or below

  1. Which of the following statements is true for wounds that heal by primary intention? Select one: a. They will likely have minimal scarring. b. They will likely contain infected tissue. c. They will likely present with ragged edges. d. They will likely have portions of missing tissue.: a. They will likely have minimal scarring.
  2. The nurse recognizes that skin integrity can be compromised when skin is exposed to body fluids. The greatest risk exists for the client who has exposure to which one of the following fluids? Select one: a. Urine b. Purulent exudates c. Pancreatic fluids d. Serosanguineous drainage: c. Pancreatic fluids
  3. The client has rheumatoid arthritis, is prone to skin breakdown, and is also somewhat immobile because of arthritic discomfort. Which of the following interventions is the best one for this client's skin integrity? Select one: a. Having the client sit up in a chair for four-hour intervals b. Keeping the head of the bed in a high-Fowler's position to increase circula-tion c. Keeping a written schedule of turning and positioning d. Encouraging the client to perform pelvic muscle training exercises several times a day: c. Keeping a written schedule of turning and positioning
  4. Which of the following information about how smoking

7 / 40 d. Serosanguineous: a. Serous

  1. The nurse notes that the client's skin is reddened, with a small intact serum-filled blister. How should the nurse classify this stage of ulcer forma-tion? Select one: a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV: b. Stage II
  2. When turning a client, the nurse notices a reddened area on the coccyx. Which of the following skin care interventions should the nurse use on this area? Select one: a. Clean the area, dry it, and add a protective moisturizer. b. Apply a diluted hydrogen peroxide and water mixture, and use a heat lamp on the area. c. Soak the area in normal saline solution. d. Wash the area with an astringent and paint it with povidone- iodine (Beta-dine).: a. Clean the area, dry it, and add a protective moisturizer.
  3. The client is scheduled for a dressing change. When removing the adhesive tape used to secure the dressing, the nurse should lift the edge and hold the tape in which manner? Select one: a. At a 45-degree angle to the skin surface while pulling away from the

8 / 40 dressing b. At a right angle to the skin surface while pulling toward the dressing c. At a right angle to the skin surface while pulling away from the dressing d. Parallel to the skin surface while pulling toward the dressing: d. Parallel to the skin surface while pulling toward the dressing

  1. The nurse is concerned that the client's abdominal wound is at risk for dehiscence. Which of the following interventions is the best one to prevent this complication? Select one: a. Administering antibiotics to prevent infection b. Using appropriate sterile technique when changing the dressing c. Keeping sterile towels and extra dressing supplies near the client's bed d. Placing a pillow over the incision site when the client is deep breathing or coughing: d. Placing a pillow over the incision site when the client is deep breathing or coughing
  2. A client has a healing abdominal wound. The wound has minimal exudate and collagen formation. The wound is identified by the nurse as being in which phase of healing? Select one: a. Primary intention b. Inflammatory phase c. Proliferative phase d. Secondary intention: c. Proliferative phase
  3. A client requires wound debridement. The nurse is aware that which of the following statements is correct regarding this procedure? Select one: a. This procedure involves flushing debris from wounds. b. This procedure involves the removal of nonviable necrotic tissue.

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  1. The nurse prepares to irrigate the client's wound. What is the primary purpose of this procedure? Select one: a. To decrease scar formation b. To cleanse the wound and remove bacteria c. To improve circulation from the wound d. To decrease irritation from wound drainage: b. To cleanse the wound and remove bacteria
  2. Which of the following nursing entries is most complete in describing a client's wound? Select one: a. "Wound appears to be healing well. Dressing dry and intact." b. "Wound well approximated with minimal drainage." c. "Drainage size of quarter; wound pink, 4 × 4s applied." d. "Incisional edges approximated without redness or drainage; two 4 × 4s applied.": d. "Incisional edges approximated without redness or drainage; two 4 × 4s applied."
  3. Which of the following is the most common electrolyte imbalance? Select one: a. Hypokalemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hyponatremia d. Hypernatremia: a. Hypokalemia
  4. The single best indicator of a client's fluid status is the nurse's assessment of which one of the following? Select one: a. The client's skin turgor b. The client's intake and output c. The client's serum electrolyte levels d. The client's daily body weight: d. The client's daily body weight
  5. The nurse anticipates that the client with a fluid volume excess will manifest which one of the following signs?

11 / 40 Select one: a. Increased urine specific gravity

13 / 40 c. Use the dominant arm. d. Vigorously rub and tap the chosen vein.: a. Start with the most distal site.

  1. A rapid infusion of blood has been given to the client. The nurse assesses the client for which one of the following? Select one: a. Diaphoresis b. Anxiety c. Hypertension and tachycardia d. Nausea and vomiting: c. Hypertension and tachycardia
  2. An IV of 125 mL is to be infused over a one-hour period. A microdrip infusion set will be used. Which of the following is the nurse's calculation of the infusion rate? Select one: a. 32 gtt/min b. 60 gtt/min c. 125 gtt/min d. 250 gtt/min: c. 125 gtt/min
  3. The client has severe anemia and will be receiving blood transfusions. The nurse prepares and begins the infusion. Ten minutes after the infusion has begun, the client develops tachycardia, chills, and low back pain. After stopping the transfusion, which of the following actions should the nurse take next? Select one: a. Administer an antipyretic. b. Begin an infusion of epinephrine. c. Run normal saline through the blood tubing. d. Obtain and send a urine specimen to the lab.: d. Obtain and send a urine specimen to the lab.
  4. Arterial blood gases are obtained for the client. The client's results (pH, 7.48; CO2, 42 mm Hg; HCO3, 32 mmol/L) indicate which one of the following acid-base imbalances?

14 / 40 Select one:

16 / 40 Select one: a. Crackles

17 / 40 b. Hypertension c. Neck vein distension d. An elevated hematocrit level: d. An elevated hematocrit level

  1. The physician orders 1000 mL of D5RL with 20 mmol KCl to run for eight hours. With an infusion set with a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL, which of the following will the nurse calculate the flow rate to be? Select one: a. 12 drops per minute b. 22 drops per minute c. 32 drops per minute d. 42 drops per minute: c. 32 drops per minute
  2. Which of the following is of great importance for the nurse to check before administering an IV solution with potassium that is prescribed for the client? Select one: a. Check for weakness. b. Assess renal function. c. Evaluate deep tendon reflexes. d. Initiate seizure precautions.: b. Assess renal function.
  3. A homeless client is brought into the emergency department with indi-cations of extremely poor nutrition. Arterial blood gases are assessed and the nurse anticipates that this client will demonstrate which of the following results? Select one: a. pH, 7.3; PaCO2, 38 mm Hg; HCO3, 19 mmol/L b. pH, 7.5; PaCO2, 34 mm Hg; HCO3, 20 mmol/L c. pH, 7.35; PaCO2, 35 mm Hg; HCO3, 24 mmol/L d. pH, 7.52; PaCO2, 48 mm Hg; HCO3, 28 mmol/L: a. pH, 7.3; PaCO2, 38 mm Hg; HCO3, 19 mmol/L
  4. A client has intravenous (IV) therapy for the administration of antibiotics and is stating that the IV site "hurts and is

19 / 40 Select one: a. Intensity of the pain b. Warmth of integument surrounding the IV site c. Amount of subcutaneous edema d. Skin discoloration of a bruised nature: b. Warmth of integument surrounding the IV site

  1. Acute renal failure and a resulting metabolic acidosis develop in a client. The nurse recognizes that the respiratory system compensates through which of the following processes? Select one: a. Hypoventilation and increase of bicarbonate in the bloodstream b. Alternating periods of deep versus shallow breaths to maintain homeosta-sis of the serum pH c. Hyperventilation to decrease the serum carbon dioxide and thereby in-crease the pH d. Expansion of the lung tissues to their fullest, which increases the inspiratory reserve volumes to provide more oxygen to the tissues: c. Hyperventilation to decrease the serum carbon dioxide and thereby increase the pH
  2. A client has pneumonia. Which of the following evaluations does the nurse make about the effectiveness of the client's cough? Select one: a. The client has a frequent, dry cough. b. The client has decreased adventitious sounds on auscultation. c. The client is breathing with deeper inhalation. d. The client's oxygen saturation is improved.: b. The client has decreased adventitious sounds on auscultation.
  3. It is suspected that the client's oxygenation status is deteriorating. The nurse is aware that which abnormal assessment finding represents the most serious indication of the client's decreased oxygenation? Select one: a. Poor skin turgor

20 / 40 b. Clubbing of the nails