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ACE Certification
The PRIMARY purpose of professional certifications is to_____. A. Provide the professional with additional education to enhance his or her knowledge, skills, and abilities B. Enhance a professional's resume for employment and/or higher compensation C. Protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet established levels of minimum competence D. Confirm a candidate's understand of key concepts following the completion of a bachelor's degree - C. Which of the following is WITHIN the cope of practice for personal trainers? A. Counseling clients through life experiences that negatively impact program adherence B. Screening clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design C. Evaluating client injuries while designing rehab exercise programs D. Recommending effective supplements for clients who skip meals - B. Which of the following is OUTSIDE the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice? A. Developing exercise programs for clients who have type 2 diabetes and medical clearance for exercise B. Providing guidance/ motivation, and feedback to empower individuals to adhere to their exercise programs C. Implementing post-rehab exercise programs for clients following their physicians' recommendations D. Compiling details nutritional programming and specific meal planning recommended by their physician - D. At what point does a candidate for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification (or any other ACE certification) agree to uphold the ACE Code of Ethics? A. While registering for an ACE certification exam B. Once the candidate earns his or her first ACE certification C. Upon receiving a printed copy of the ACE Code of Ethics with the printed ACE certification D. When accepting his or her first job as an ACE Certified Personal Trainer - A. ACE Certified Personal Trainers must complete a minimum of 20 hours of continuing education every two years to maintain their certifications. The PRIMARY reason ACE has established this minimum continuing-education requirement is to help ACE Certified Personal Trainers _____. A. Earn promotions so they can advance their careers B. Increase their earning potential by adding new speciality certifications to their resumes C. Enhance their resumes to attract more clients D. Stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and health - D.
Which of the following is WITHIN the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice? A. Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices B. Providing clients with recipes and shopping lists for 4 weeks to get them on track with healthful eating C. Conducting 24-hour dietary recalls to help clients learn where they have micronutrient deficienceies D. Educating clients about resting metabolic rate and the need to consume fewer calories to lose weight - A. A personal trainer who wanted to provide massage to help clients who have tight or sore muscles can do so ONLY if _____. A. The personal trainer has extensive knowledge about the benefits of massage B. the client gives his or her consent for the massage C. The personal trainer becomes a licensed massage therapist D. The massage therapist is not available and the personal trainer has some training - C. What do most allied health certification programs, such as the credentials for registered dietitians, OTs, and nurse practitioners, have in common with certifications from the American Council on Exercise? A. They require a bachelor's degree as a minimum eligibility requirement B. They are accredited by the National Commission for Certifying Agencies C. They share the same collective scope of practice in allied health D. They meet the competency-based exam requirement for licenser in most states - B. Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding personal trainers recommending supplements to their clients? A. The personal trainer should only recommend those supplements covered under his or her professional liability insurance B. Unless the personal trainer has other credentials such as an RD or MD, he or she does not possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements C. The personal trainer should become educated about the specific supplements before making any recommendations D. Due to potential complications from taking supplements with other medications, personal trainers should recommend only plant-based supplements - B. ACE Certified Personal Trainers looking to advance their knowledge, skills, and abilities beyond their ACE Personal Trainer Certification would be BEST served by completing what type of continuing education? A. A second NCCA-accredited personal-trainer certification B. A workshop that focuses on how to incorporate supplementation into a nutrition plan C. An online person-training certification from an organization that is not NCCA-accredited D. An advanced fitness certification that is NCCA-accredited - D.
A. 10; CPR
B. 20; risk management C. 20; CPR - C. What should a personal trainer do if a client insists on using dietary supplements despite the trainer's assurance that his or her fitness goals can be met without them? A. Refer the client to a registered dietitian or physician B. Refer the client to the health club's sales team C. Check that the facility's insurance policy covers the sale of these products D. Stop training the client until he or she agrees to stop using these products - A. Which of the following is an appropriate response to a client who mentions being sore following a weekend tennis tournament? A. Discussing the proper technique for icing the affected areas B. Providing deep tissue massage to help relieve the soreness C. Recommending the use of over the counter anti inflammatory medications D. Recommending the use of a creatine supplement prior to his or her next tournament - A. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of regular physical activity? A. Improved lipid profile B. Improved glucose control C. Decreased anxiety and depression D. Increased diastolic blood pressure - D. At what stage of an exercise bout are phosphagen stores being replenished, remaining lactate being removed from the blood, and the metabolic rate decreasing? A. Immediately after the commencement of exercise B. After the cessation of exercise C. As the body approaches steady state D. During steady-state training - B. Which of the following is an adaptation specifically seen with regular weight bearing exercise? A. Improved lean body mass B. Improved cardiac output efficiency C. Increase in bone density D. Increase in respiratory capacity - C. The SA node, which is sometimes called the pacemaker of the heart, is located in which chamber of the heart? A. Left ventricle B. Right atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left atrium -
B.
Which of the following is NOT a method the body uses to preserve blood volume during steady-state exercise? A. Increasing heart rate B. Releasing vasopressin and aldosterone C. Increasing vasoconstriction in non-working muscles D. Increasing stroke volume - D. TRUE OR FALSE: Minute ventilation decreases after an exerciser crosses the second ventilatory threshold (VT2). - False Which is the primary advantage of the increase in blood volume that results from chronic cardiorespiratory exercise? A. Decreased cardiac stress B. Reduced work environment for the heart C. Improved VO2max D. Enhanced O2 delivery to working muscles - D. After completing 3 weeks of physical therapy, your client needs to continue improving the range of motion of his shoulder join. Which fitness component would MOST likely need to be improved to help this client? A. Flexibility B. Body composition C. Muscular strength D. Cardiovascular endurance - A. Your client has just signed up for her first half-marathon. Which fitness component would MOST likely need to be improved to help this client? A. Cardiovascular endurace B. Muscular strength C. Muscular endurance D. Flexibility - A. Your client is having hip replacement surgery in two months and she wants to be able to transfer herself in and out of her wheelchair. Which fitness component would MOST likely need to be improved to help this client? A. Flexibility B. Body Composition C. Muscular strength D. Cardiovascular endurance - C.
Which slow-acting hormone stimulates the mobilization of free fatty acids from adipose tissue, mobilizes glucose synthesis in the liver, and decreases the rate of glucose utilization in the cells? A. Cortisol B. Growth hormone C. Insulin D. Glucagon - A. Which mechanism of thermoregulation is the major contributor during exercise? A. Convection B. Evaporation C. Radiation D. Excretion - B. During what phase of general adaptation syndrome will a client see progressive increases in muscle size and strength? A. Alarm phase B. Exhaustion phase C. Shock phase D. Adaptation phase - D. Which hormone promotes triglyceride breakdown to aid in maintaining blood glucose? A. Norepinephrine B. Cortisol C. Vasopressin D. Estrogen - B. Which of the four components of blood carries hormones, food materials, ions, and gases throughout the body? A. Red blood cells B. Plasma C. White blood cells D. Platelets - B. When blood is flowing through the heart, where does it go after passing through the tricuspid valve? A. Right ventricle B. Left ventricle C. Right atrium D. Left atrium - A. TRUE OR FALSE: The average person's breathing rate through the nose is equal to 20- liters per minute while at rest. - False
TRUE OR FALSE: Cardiac output is defined as the amount of blood pumped during each heart beat. - False Francine practices hot yoga. The room is 103º F (39º C) and she is in class for 60 minutes. The release of _____ will help reduce the excretion of water in her urine, thereby helping prevent any further dehydration. A. Norepinephrine B. Insulin C. Growth Hormone D. Antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin) - D. Christopher is an endurance athlete. He often gets low blood sugar during his long workouts. Once the liver recognizes the release of glucagon from the pancreas, _____ is released to help increase his blood sugar levels. A. Glucose B. Carbohydrate C. Insulin D. Triglyceride - A. During an endurance race, cortisol helps maintain blood glucose levels by promoting the breakdown of _____ and _____. A. Growth hormone; testosterone B. Epinephrine; norepinephrine C. Insulin; glucagon D. Protein; triglycerides - D. The increase in heart rate prior to the state of a race is partially due to the release of what hormone? A. Epinephrine B. Estrogen C. Testosterone D. Norepinephrine - A. TRUE OR FALSE: Gas is exchanged in microscopic air sacs known as bronchi? - False TRUE OR FALSE: The diaphragm is the most important muscle of inspiration. - True TRUE OR FALSE: During exercise, expiration is passive. - False TRUE OR FALSE: Respiratory muscles adapt to training and thus can improve the duration and intensity of exercise. -
B. Helping clients keep a primary goal of never missing a session C. Setting many goals to ensure some type of program success D. Setting only long term goals to develop adherence - A. A strong social support network can provide an individual with all of the following EXCEPT _____. A. Improved program adherence B. Extrinsic motivation C. Relapse-prevention support D. Intrinsic motivation - D. Which type of exercise program has a dropout rate almost twice the rate of a moderate- intensity program? A. Small-group personal training B. Vigorous-intensity exercise program C. Home-based personal training D. Low-intensity exercise program - B. Which of the following factors is MOST likely unrelated to adherence levels in supervised exercise settings? A. Education B. Age C. Income D. Gender - B. After one year of regular personal-training sessions, your client wanted to try to continue on her own. During the following six months, you notice your client routinely exercising for one hour, four to five days of the week. Your client says that she "loves coming to the gym and feels great after her workouts." You can MOST likely contribute your client's success to which of the following? A. Extrinsic motivatoin B. Self-esteem C. Intrinsic motivation D. Self-efficacy - C. Which of the following behaviors would MOST likely help a trainer develop rapport with a client during the initial session? A. Looking away from the client frequently to prevent staring; sitting with good posture and a slight forward lean B. Speaking in a soft, friendly voice; learning against the chair armrest with forearms loosely crossed C. Direct, friendly eye contact; maintaining a constant smile and enthusiasm throughout the session D. Speaking with confidence; using fluid hand gestures while speaking and quiet hands when listening -
D.
During the investigation stage, which of the following statements BEST pertains to effective listening? A. Asking the client close-ended questions to encourage him or her to share relevant information B. Listening carefully to the client while reconstructing the information based on the listener's own beliefs C. Asking the client questions and responding to answers with encouraging words and further open-ended questions D. Recording detailed notes while the client is speaking - C. A client you have been working with for several months tells you that a close relative recently became seriously ill. Which of the following responses is MOST appropriate? A. "I'm so sorry.I can't imagine how difficult that must be for you." B. "Have you considered counseling? Some of my clients have had great success with it." C. "I'm sorry! What happened?" D. "That is terrible! Tell me more about what is worrying you." - A. Which of the following statements BEST demonstrates a SMART goal? A. "I will improve my cholesterol and blood pressure through better eating and exercise." B. "I will run 4 days per week, progressing my run time from 10-40 minutes for a 5K in 4 months." C. "I will lose 20lbs for my trip to Hawaii in 2 months by exercising seven days a week." D. "I will try a new group exercise class each week to avoid boredom." - B. Which of the following is MOST effective in helping a client develop program adherence? A. Providing the client with frequent changes in the program to prevent bordem B. Having the client self-monitor by keeping an exercise journal C. Implementing a reward system for each training session D. Conducting fitness assessments every week to measure progress - B. What is the MOST effective way to teach a new exercise to a client? A. Show the client how to do the exercise, then have the client perform the exercise while mirroring to provide an example of good form B. Tell the client what the exercise is, demonstrate the exercise, and have the client perform the exercise while providing feedback C. Use photos of the exercise while explaining it to the client, and then have the client perform the exercise while providing feedback D. Have the client perform the exercise while providing verbal instructions to coach him or her through it with proper form - B. A client who is beginning to perform body-weight squats with fairly decent form is now ready for more specific feedback to help refine her squatting technique. Which of the following stages of learning is BEST represented in this scenario?
What is the MOST influential source of self-efficacy information related to exercise? A. Persuasive verbal feedback B. Emotional state and mood C. Past exercise performance D. Vicarious exercise experiences - C. A new client tells you that she used to participate in local 10K and half-marathon running events before having twins. Although she had wanted to continue running she has not been active since her children were born two years ago. Now that they are in daycare 3x a week she has begun walking a bit and wants to begin running, with an eventual goal of completing her first marathon. Based on this information, your client MOST likely progressed through which of the following stages of behavioral change from pre-pregnancy to meeting with you today? A. Action, precontemplation, action B. Maintenance, contemplation, action C. Action, maintenance, preparation D. Maintenance, contemplation, preparation - D. Which of the following strategies is the MOST effective cognitive behavioral technique that a personal trainer can implement to improve client exercise adherence? A. Revisiting client goals only during reassessments so they reflect greater progress B. Making primary decisions regarding each client's program so that he or she can focus on the exercises C. Helping clients move from primarily external feedback to primarily internal feedback D. Recording progress so clients can focus on the exercises without having to monitor their own progress - C. According to the principle of operant conditioning, which of the following consequences would be BEST for a personal trainer to use to ensure that a desired client behavior will reoccur in the future? A. Punishment B. Positive reinforcement C. Extinction of a positive stimulus D. Negative reinforcement - B. Which of the following precesses is the BEST example of using reinforcement to help a client progress from a quarter lung to performing a full lunge and then eventually adding resistance? A. Shaping B. Operant conditioning C. Antecedents D. Observational learning - A.
Which of the following processes is BEST exemplified by a client choosing a gym that is in the direct route between home and work? A. Operant conditioning B. Stimulus control C. Imaginal experience D. Shaping - B. Which of the following self-monitoring strategies is MOST effective for improving client's long-term program adherence? A. Journaling thoughts, experiences, and emotions B. Video taping their exercises to see where they can improve C. Setting a reminder on their calendar to workout D. Analyzing the results of a heart rate monitor after every session - A. Which of the following strategies would be MOST likely to enhance a client's willlpower? A. Making important behavior change decisions at the end of the day B. Setting many large goals to overhaul one's lifestyle C. Planning in advance for moments of weak self-control D. Starting a behavior-change plan while applying for new jobs and relocating - C. TRUE OR FALSE: Adherence is defined as the psychological drive that gives behavior direction and purpose. - False More than _____% of people who start a new program will drop out within the first 6 months. A. 50 B. 60 C. 25 D. 75 - A. Which of the following is NOT one of the three primary categories of potential determinants for physical activity? A. Environmental factors B. Personal attributes C. Physical attributes D. Physical activity factors - C. General trends reveal that members of which of the following populations are MOST LIKELY to be performing higher levels of physical activity in unsupervised settings? A. Those in a lower socioeconomic bracket B. Those in fewer years of education C. Men D. Older adults - C.
Which of the following presents the four stages of the client-trainer relationship in their proper order? A. Planning, rapport, investigation, action B. Rapport, planning, investigation, action C. Investigation planning, action, rapport D. Rapport, investigation, planning, action - D. TRUE OR FALSE: A loud, tense voice communicates confidence and professionalism when speaking to a new client. - False Which of the following body positions may be interpreted by a client as aggressiveness on the part of the trainer? A. Standing with hands on hips B. Seated while leaning slightly forward C. Seated behind a desk with legs crossed D. Standing with an open body position - A. Approximately what percent of the US population meets both aerobic activity and muscle strengthening guidelines? A. 35% B. 50% C. 20% D. 10% - C. Which of the following goals BEST represents the statement "I want to bicep curl 10lb dumbbells for 10 reps by April"? A. Time bound goal B. SMART goal C. Product goal D. Process goal - C. A personal trainer who is seeking clarification from a client by trying to restate the main points and feelings in a client's communication is using which method of effective listening? A. Encouraging B. Summarizing C. Paraphrasing D. Reflecting - D. "I will perform a full-body resistance-training workout twice every week" is an example of which type of goal? A. SMART goal B. Time bound goal C. Process goal D. Product goal -
C.
Motivational interviewing is most commonly done during which stage of the client-trainer relationship? A. Action B. Planning C. Rapport D. Investigation - B. The 3 components of properly phrased feedback are BEST presented in what order? A. Motivate clients to continue practicing and improving; provide reinforcement for what was done well; correct errors B. Correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving; provide reinforcement for what was done well C. Correct errors; provide reinforcement for what was done well; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving D. Provide reinforcement for that was done well; correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving - D. Clients who are beginning the basics of a particular movement and are ready for specific feedback are in which stage of motor learning? A. Associative B. Autonomous C. Affective D. Cognitive - A. Which behavioral theory model is based on a prediction that people engage in a health behavior depending on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem? A. Transtheoretical model of behavioral change B. Health belief model C. Self-efficacy model D. Stages of change model - B. What is the most influential source of self-efficacy information? A. Imaginal experience B. Emotional state C. Past performance experience D. Vicarious experience - C. TRUE OR FALSE: People with low self-efficacy are more likely to choose non-challenging tasks that are easy to accomplish. - True
After several months of working with a client, a personal trainer notes that the client's self- efficacy and ability levels have improved. How should this affect the amount of external feedback the trainer provides to the client? A. The trainer should taper the amount of external feedback B. The amount of feedback should not change C. The trainer should increase the amount of external feedback D. The trainer should immediately stop providing external feedback - A. Which of the stages of a successful client trainer relationship includes implementing strategies to improve motivation and promote long term adherence? A. Rapport B. Investigation C. Planning D. Action - D. What is the name of the essential attribute of successful relationships that is described as "the ability to respect another person regardless of his or her uniqueness?" A. Empathy B. Warmth C. Genuineness D. Honesty - B. "Can you tell me more about the circumstances surrounding the times you have experienced low-back soreness?" is an example of what type of interviewing technique? A. Reflecting B. Contronting C. Informing D. Probing - D. Gender: male Age: 47 Family history: mother has hypertension; father had coronary bypass surgery at 59 Smoking: quit 20 years ago Current exercise: Walks dog 1-2 times per day for 10 minutes per walk BMI: 29kg/m Blood pressure: 132/86mmHg Total serum cholesterol: 216mmHg LDL: 138mg/dL HDL: 48mg/dL Fasting plasma glucose: 94mg/dL Goals: lose 20lb; increase muscle strength and cardiorespiratory fitness What is this client's "total score" for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease using the ACSM risk factor thresholds? A. 1 B. 2
C. 3
D. 4 -
C.
Gender: male Age: 47 Family history: mother has hypertension; father had coronary bypass surgery at 59 Smoking: quit 20 years ago Current exercise: Walks dog 1-2 times per day for 10 minutes per walk BMI: 29kg/m Blood pressure: 132/86mmHg Total serum cholesterol: 216mmHg LDL: 138mg/dL HDL: 48mg/dL Fasting plasma glucose: 94mg/dL Goals: lose 20lb; increase muscle strength and cardiorespiratory fitness According to the ACSM risk stratification, what is this client's level of risk? A. Low B. Moderate C. High D. Very High - B. Gender: male Age: 47 Family history: mother has hypertension; father had coronary bypass surgery at 59 Smoking: quit 20 years ago Current exercise: Walks dog 1-2 times per day for 10 minutes per walk BMI: 29kg/m Blood pressure: 132/86mmHg Total serum cholesterol: 216mmHg LDL: 138mg/dL HDL: 48mg/dL Fasting plasma glucose: 94mg/dL Goals: lose 20lb; increase muscle strength and cardiorespiratory fitness What are the recommendations regarding exercise testing based on this client's risk stratification? A. Trainer can perform submax fitness testing without a physician's supervision B. A medical exam is required before moderate exercise C. A physician should be present for all submax and max fitness testing D. A graded exercise test is required prior to beginning a moderate exercise program - A. Gender: Female Age: 39 Family history: father has type 1 diabetes; mother just diagnosed with type 2 diabetes Smoking: never Current exercise: swims 3-4 days per week for 30-45 minutes for the past 6 months
