Download ACE Personal Trainer Certification Exam Preparation and more Exams Training and Development in PDF only on Docsity!
ACE Personal Trainer Test questions from
Study Companion
Which of the following is a known health benefit associated with physical activity for children? A. Reduced risk of depression B. decreased risk of falls C. lower risk of hypertension D. decreased cognition - A. Reduced risk of depression Which of the following is a known health benefit associated with physical activity for adults and older adults? A. decreased physical capacity B. improved chance of weight regain C. improved sleep D. increased LDL cholesterol - C. improved sleep Noncommunicable diseases are also referred to as: -
- not contagious
- preventable What are the exercise recommendations from the Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans? - 150 minutes of moderate cardio exercise or 75 minutes of high intensity cardio 2 days a week of strength training using every muscle group T or F: Personal trainer can prescribe dietary supplements to clients interested in improving performance. - False T or F: To truly affect chronic disease on a global level, health equity must be a priority for professionals across the full spectrum of healthcare in all communities. - True The primary purpose of professional certification is to: A. Counseling clients through life experiences that negatively impact program adherence B. Assessing clients for exercise limitation to facilitate exercise program design C. Evaluating client injuries while designing rehabilitative exercise programs D. Recommending effective supplement for client who skip meals - B. Assessing client for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design Which of the following is outside the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice? A. Developing exercise programs for clients how have type 2 diabetes and medical clearance for exercise
B. Providing guidance, motivation, and feedback to empower individuals to adhere to their exercise programs C. Implementing post-rehabilitative exercise programs for clients following their physicians' recommendations. D. Creating an individualized nutritional program with specific meal plans based on physician recommendations. - D. Creating an individualized nutritional program with specific meal plans based on physician recommendations. At what point does a candidate for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification agree to uphold the ACE Code of Ethics? A. While registering for an ACE certification exam B. Once the candidate earns his or her first ACE certification C. Upon receiving a printed copy of the ACE Code of Ethics D. When accepting his or her first job as an ACE Certified Personal Trainer - A. While registering for an ACE certification exam Which of the following is WITHIN the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice? A. Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices B. Providing clients with individualized recipes and shopping lists for four weeks to get them on track with a specialty diet C. conducting 24-hour dietary recalls to determine nutritional needs, and recommending nutritional intake D. Educating client about resting metabolic rate(RMR) and the need to consume fewer calories than (RMR) to lose weight - A. Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices What do most allied health certification programs, such as the credentials for registered dietitians, occupational therapists, and nurse practitioners, have in common with certifications from the American Council on Exercise. A. They require a bachelor's degree as a minimum eligibility requirement B. They are accredited by the National Commission for Certifying Agencies C. They share the same collective scope of practice in allied health D. They meet the competency-based exam requirement for licensure in most states. - B. They are accredited by the National Commission for Certifying Agencies Which of the following in MOST accurate regarding personal trainers recommending supplements to their clients? A. The personal trainer should only recommend those supplements covered under his or her professional liability insurance B. Unless the personal trainer has other credentials such as an RD or MD, he or she does not possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements C. The personal trainer should become educated about the specific supplements before making any recommendations D. Due to potential complications from taking supplements with other medications, personal trainers should recommend only plant-based supplements. - B. Unless the personal trainer has other credentials such as an RD or MD, he or she does not possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements
A. Assessing posture, functional movement and muscular strength and endurance B. Collecting health history data to identify limitations for exercise and the need for referral C. Assessing cardiorespiratory fitness using the submaximal talk test to determine HR at VT D. measuring body composition and waist-to-hip ratio - B. Collecting health history data to identify limitations for exercise and the need for referral Which of the following is MOST likely to create a barrier to fitness-related behavioral change for some clients? A. identifying a client's readiness to change behavior B. creating early positive exercise experiences C. implementing strategies for working with clients based on their personality styles D. conducting initial comprehensive assessments of fitness and body composition. - D. conducting initial comprehensive assessments of fitness and body composition. In what phase of the Muscular Training component of the ACE IFT Model would a person be categorized if he has lumbar lordosis and limited range of motion in the hips and shoulders? A. functional training B. movement training C. load/speed training D. base training - A. functional training Strength training, body building and training for muscular endurance all fall under which Muscular Training phase of the ACE IFT Model? A. functional training B. movement training C. load/speed training D. performance training - C. load/speed training Load/Speed Training includes speed, agility, quickness, and power drills that would be MOST appropriate for which client? A. 45 year old male competitive tennis player B. 33 year old female wanting to complete her first marathon C. 27 year old male body builder D. 52 year old female recreational golfer - A. 45 year old male competitive tennis player A regular group exercise participant who works at a moderate intensity for 20 to 30 minutes, three times per week, and with no competitive goals is ready to progress to which phase of the Cardiorespiratory Training component of the ACT IFT Model? A. Base Training B. Fitness Training C. Performance Training D. Load/Speed Training - B. Fitness Training During which phase of the Cardiorespiratory Training component of the ACE IFT Model will intervals be introduced at intensities at and above the VT2 heart rate?
A. Base Training B. Fitness Training C. Performance Training D. Load/Speed Training - C. Performance Training Cardiorespiratory exercise in the Fitness Training phase includes training at which intensities? A. Below VT1 only B. Below, at and above VT1 to just below VT C. From VT1 to just below VT2 only D. At of above VT2 - B. Below, at and above VT1 to just below VT According to the principle of operant conditioning, which of the following consequences would be BEST for personal trainer to use to ensure that a desired client behavior will reoccur in the future? A. Punishment B. Positive reinforcement C. Extinctions of a positive stimulus D. Providing an aversive stimulus - B. Positive reinforcement Which of the following is the BEST question a personal trainer can encourage a client to ask him/herself if they are experiencing a cognitive distortions? A. Why are you not thinking more positively about this? B. What is the evidence for and against this thought? C. Why is the world against me? D. why does nothing seem to work out according to plan? - B. What is the evidence for and against this thought? Which of the following processes is BEST exemplified by a client choosing a gym that is on the direct route between home and work? A. Operant conditioning B. stimulus control C. imaginal experience D. positive reinforcement - B. stimulus control Which of the following strategies would be MOST likely to enhance a client's willpower? A. Making important behavior-change decisions at the end of the day B. Setting many large goals to overhaul one's lifestyle C. Planning in advance for the moments of weak self-control D. Starting a behavior-change plan while applying for new jobs and relocating - C. Planning in advance for the moments of weak self-control What stage of the client-personal trainer relationship is characterized by discussions about the client's health, fitness and lifestyle? A. rapport B. action
D. Independent - A. Associative A client mentions that he prefers tactile feedback and spotting while exercising. This strategy is MOST likely indicative of which learning style? A. Visual B. Associative C. Kinesthetic D. Cognitive - C. Kinesthetic Which of the following strategies is NOT one of the four interconnected components comprising the spirit of motivational interviewing? A. Collaboration B. Dependence C. Acceptance D. Evocation - B. Dependence What is NOT a factor of the new Health-screening process? A. current level of activity B. environmental factors C. desired exercise intensity D. diagnosed or symptoms of cardiovascular, metabolic or renal disease - B. environmental factors Preparticipation health screening for individuals wanting to initiate an exercise program may be conducted using which document as a self-guided screening tool? A. Consent form B. Medical clearance form C. PAR+Q D. History of medication form - C. PAR+Q A new personal training client who does not currently exercise and has type 2 diabetes need medical clearance? yes or no? - Yes, medical clearance is recommended as she has a known metabolic condition. Beta blockers block beta-adrenergic receptors and A. increase sympathetic nervous system stimulation B. Limit sympathetic nervous system stimulation C. Increase parasympathetic nervous system stimulation D. Limit parasympathetic nervous system simulation. - B. Limit sympathetic nervous system stimulation Calcium channel blockers A. Increase blood pressure B. Increase heart rate C. Lower blood pressure D. Lower heart rate -
C. Lower blood pressure The preparticipation guidelines from the American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) are designed to: A. Allow personal trainers to stratify a client's risk B. Stop high-risk individuals from engaging in activity C. Remove any unnecessary barriers to becoming more physically active D. Specifically reduce liability for personal trainers - C. Remove any unnecessary barriers to becoming more physically active The PAR-Q+ is evidence based and was developed with a goal of: A. providing medical clearance B. reducing unnecessary barriers to exercise C. being a comprehensive screening tool D. reducing personal trainer liability - B. reducing unnecessary barriers to exercise A Personal Trainers scope of practice regarding nutrition is determined by the follow except: A. State policies and regulations B. What is read on a typical diet website C. Education, certification and experience D. competencies and skills - B. What is read on a typical diet website on the day of the event, an athlete should aim to eat a meal ?? hours before the event: A. 1- B. 3- C. 4- D. 8-10 - C. 4- Refueling should begin within ?? after exercise? A. 3 hours B. 2 hours C. 1 hour D. 30 minutes - D. 30 minutes The level of intake of a nutrient that is adequate to meet the known needs of practically all healthy persons is referred to as the A. Tolerable Upper Intake Level B. Estimated Average Requirement C. Recommended Dietary Allowance D. Adequate Intake - C. Recommended Dietary Allowance The Dietary Guidelines for Americans are updated every ?? years A. 10 B. 7 C. 5
C. Very low You have a client who is 5'9" and weighs 185 pounds. What is his body mas index? A. 18.2 kg/m B. 27.3 kg/m C. 31.2 kg/m D. 40.4 kg/m2 - B. 27.3 kg/m Essential fat for men is A. 20-25% B. 16-19 % C. 12-15% D. 10-13% - C. 12-15% Which of the following statements about body mass index is MOST accurate? A. It is an accurate measure of body composition B. Classification is dependent upon the sex of the client C. A score of 32.kg/m2 falls within the overweight category D. It is associated with health, morbidity, and mortality - D. It is associated with health, morbidity, and mortality An approach to estimating body fat that incorporates the measure of subcutaneous fat is A. Hydrostatic weighting B. Skinfold measurements C. Body mass index D. Circumference measurements - B. Skinfold measurements If a client has extreme obesity, some body composition assessment approaches will be inaccurate. In such cases, a practical approach a personal trainer can take is to use BMI or ?? A. DXA B. TOBEC C. Skinfold D. Circumference measurements - D. Circumference measurements If a client you are working with was running a 10 minute mile with a previous training heart rate of 150 bpm and now can run the same mile with a training heart rate of 140 bpm what has happened? A. Her endurance is getting worse B. She may be taking medication and need to ask C. She is undergoing cardiac adaptation and has increased her stroke volume lowering her training heart rate D. She is experiencing training fatigue and needs to back off her training. - C. She is undergoing cardiac adaptation and has increased her stroke volume lowering her training heart rate The oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is determined primarily by what two variables?
A. heart and lungs B. adequately ventilate the alveoli in the lungs and the hemoglobin concentration of the blood C. VO2 max and high METS D. stroke volume and low heart rate levels - B. adequately ventilate the alveoli in the lungs and the hemoglobin concentration of the blood What are the 3 components of a cardiorespiratory workout session? A. VT 1, VT2, VT B. Warm up for 2 minutes, high intensity cardio, stretch C. warm up below VT1, conditioning phase, cool down below VT D. warm up between VT1 and VT2, conditioning phase, stretch - C. warm up below VT1, conditioning phase, cool down below VT The most important factor in cardiorespiratory fitness is: A. delivery of blood to the active cells - a function of cardiac output B. to continue to move to performance levels of cardio C. to improve endurance D. to lower blood pressure - A. delivery of blood to the active cells - a function of cardiac output Cardiac output is the product of: A. sotolic and ?? pressure B. load speed and time to perform task C. muscle expenditure and oxygen D. heart rate and stroke volume - D. heart rate and stroke volume Current guidelines recommend physical activity be performed: A. Every day of the week B. On most days of the week C. On two days of the week D. On one day of the week - B. On most days of the week The most difficult variable of an exercise program to represent quantitatively is: A. Frequency B. On most days of the week C. Time D. Type - B. On most days of the week ?? is a subjective method of measuring exercise intensity. A. rating of perceived exertion (RPE) B. maximal heart rate C. talk test D. Karvonen method - A. rating of perceived exertion (RPE) If a client can talk comfortably during exercise, he or she is in zone??
A. More cardio creates more muscular strength B. Stressful forces on bones creates more bone density C. More reps creates less lactic acid D. less weight increases joint strength - B. Stressful forces on bones creates more bone density What is the most common type of joint in the body which is freely moveable? A. B. C. Synovial D. - C. Synovial What are the planes of motion? A. front, back and top B. Sagittal, transverse, frontal C. abduction and adduction D. flexion and extension - B. Sagittal, transverse, frontal The 4 angular movements defined for synovial joints are: A. flexion, extension, abduction and adduction B. left, right, front and back C. dorsiflexion, inversion, plantar flexion and eversion D. none of these - A. flexion, extension, abduction and adduction The sympathetic nervous system does what? A. activates when there is a stressor or an emergency B. part of the brain that helps with empathy C. activates when it's time to relax and slow down D. aids in digestion - A. activates when there is a stressor or an emergency The parasympathetic system does what? A. activates when there is a stressor or an emergency B. aids in digestion of food, storing energy and promoting growth C. aids in controlling normal functions when the body is relaxed D. both B and C - D. both B and C Your new client is a 47-year-old woman who wants to lose weight, but it a bit apprehensive about muscular training because she does not want to 'get big'. What response would be best to facilitate muscular-training program adherence and motivation? A. design a program based primarily on cardio with high rep (15-25) sets to help her meet her goals B. tell her that she has nothing to worry about as women don't produce enough testosterone to get big. C. explain the average adult muscle-tissue loss of 5lb per decade and how resistance training can help her restore lost muscle and raise resting metabolism -
C. explain the average adult muscle-tissue loss of 5lb per decade and how resistance training can help her restore lost muscle and raise resting metabolism Which of the following statements about the role of type 1 muscle fibers during muscular training exercises is MOST accurate? A. They are responsible for producing quick, high-force movements B. They contract more slowly and create lower force outputs C. They are oxidative and not active during muscular-training D. They are only active when performing 15 or more reps - B. They contract more slowly and create lower force outputs You are working with a new client who wants to begin muscular training in order to build muscular endurance. Which of the following set and repetition combos would be BEST for helping achieve this goal? A. 1-2 sets of 8-10 reps B. 2-3 sets of 12 or more reps C. 3-4 sets of 8 reps D. 3-5 sets of 6-12 reps - B. 2-3 sets of 12 or more reps Anatomical position refers to a person standing erect with head, eyes and palms facing: A. downward B. upward C. forward D. to the side - C. forward Flexion occurs in what plane of motion? A. Sagittal B. Transverse C. Frontal D. Coronal - A. Sagittal Extension is the opposite joint action of A. abduction B. adduction C. dorsiflexion D. flexion - D. flexion One property that all muscle tissue has in common is its ability to: A. regenerate B. contract C. dilate D. constrict - B. contract If it is observed that a client's shoulders are not level, it might indicate: A. tightness in the upper trapezius, levator scapulae and rhomboids
B. hip flexor length C. hip extensor strength D. hip extensor length - B. hip flexor length If a client exhibits lumbar dominance in the squat movement, this indicates: A. an overly strong core B. a lack of core and gluteal strength C. weakness in the low back D. weakness in the hamstrings - B. a lack of core and gluteal strength The body-weight squat assessment evaluates: A. lower-extremity muscular endurance B. lower-extremity muscular strength C. core stability D. core strength - A. lower-extremity muscular endurance
