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ACE Personal Trainer - 3rd Edition
Practice Exam.
Which of the following tests BEST measures muscular strength? A. 10-repetition-maximum bench-press test B. YMCA push-up test C. Half sit-up test D. YMCA bench-press test - ANSWER A. 10-repetition maximum bench-press test This is the best test for measuring muscular strength because it is safer than a 1- repetition maximum bench-press test and most people can complete 10 repetitions with 75% of their maximum resistance. While a 1-repetition maximum bench-press test is considered a more accurate measure of strength, the risk of injury outweighs the benefits of performing the test for most personal training clients. Therefore, the 10-repetition test is considered an appropriate substitute for assessing strength. Which strategy will BEST ensure agreement between the client and trainer with respect to motivation and goals? A. The client should be allowed by the trainer to plan the initial training activities. B. The trainer should establish a basic program for the client to start their regimen. C. The trainer should explore the client's expectations and prior experience. D. The client's present level of physical fitness should be determined. - ANSWER C. The trainer should explore the client's expectations and prior experience This response will best ensure agreement between the client and trainer with respect to motivation and goals. Finding out where a client is mentally and experimentally with respect to exercise allows a trainer to develop a specific exercise program tailored to exactly what the client wants and needs. When a program is designed with client expectations and prior experience in mind, the client's motivation increases because the client was a contributor to the process. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 378-386; 2nd ed., 358- Cardio respiratory fitness is BEST evaluated by which of the following?
A. Rating of perceived exertion B. Maximal oxygen uptake C. Sub-maximal exercise heart rate D. Heart-rate recovery rate - ANSWER B. Maximal oxygen uptake This is the best method for evaluating cardio-respiratory fitness because it measures maximal oxygen uptake during an exercise activity. Since cardio-respiratory fitness is defined by an individual's ability to take in and use oxygen during physical activity, maximal oxygen uptake (also known as VO2max) is the best method for evaluation. Depending on the age and cardiovascular risk of the client, this method is often limited to clinical or research facilities and is usually performed in the presence of a physician trained in advanced cardiac life support. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 175-176; 2nd ed., pgs. 175- Client: Male Age: 39 Physician Clearance: Yes Medical/Health Concerns: Smokes 30+ cigarettes per day Blood pressure: 136/94 mmHg Past Activity Levels: Played high-school soccer and rugby Current Activity Levels: Walks dog and walks 10 minutes to work everyday Main Fitness Goal: To improve stamina and feel more fit Given the information above, which of the following fitness tests is contraindicated for a personal trainer to perform? A. 3-minute step test B. Submaximal cycle ergometry test C. Maximal graded treadmill test D. 1-mile walk test - ANSWER C. Maximal graded treadmill test This response is correct because this is a maximal fitness test and, therefore, contraindicated. The client's information, given in the stem of the question, places him in the moderate risk category for experiencing a cardiac event during exercise. He has two risk factors, current cigarette smoker and hypertension, but has no symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease. Therefore, he may exercise at a moderate intensity and undergo sub-maximal fitness testing.
D. Prevents the trainer from being sued by the client for acts of negligence - ANSWER C. Allows the physician to direct modifications in the exercise program. This response is correct. The purpose of a physician's medical release form is to provide the personal trainer with clarification of a client's status and to explain any limitations to physical activity. It also enables the physician to direct modifications to the exercise program. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 155; 2nd ed., pg. 156 Your new client, who is 34 years old, smokes 10 cigarettes per day, has a triglyceride level of 200 mg/dL, and a total cholesterol/HDL ratio of 3.5. Before training him, you should _______________. A. Recommend he see a registered dietitian to help him reduce his dietary fat B. Recommend he see a registered dietitian to help him reduce his dietary cholesterol C. Require a physician's approval D. Have him sign an informed consent form - ANSWER D. Have him sign an informed consent form. This response is correct. The client does not need to be referred to another health professional prior to training. Therefore, having him sign prerequisite paperwork, such as informed consent and release of liability, is appropriate at this time. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 154-155; 2nd ed., pgs. 154- During the initial interview with your new client, you discover that he has a thyroid disease and is currently taking medication. Your FIRST course of action should be to _____________. A. Research the effects of his medications on exercise capacity and design his program accordingly. B. Obtain appropriate exercise parameters from his primary care provider. C. Incorporate an extended warm-up and cool-down period at a low-intensity level. D. Refer him to a registered dietitian since his condition is nutrition related. - ANSWER B. Obtain appropriate exercise parameters from his primary care provider This response is correct. It is outside the scope of practice for a personal trainer to design an exercise program for a client with a metabolic disorder without first gaining clearance and guidelines from a
physician. The ACSM Initial Risk Stratification places individuals with known thyroid disorders in the high risk category, indicating that they should receive medical clearance prior to engaging in an exercise program. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 496. A lifestyle information form is helpful in developing _______________. A. Rapport, program design, and goals B. A treatment plan for special populations C. The fitness components of rehabilitation program D. A relapse prevention strategy - ANSWER A. Rapport, program design, and goals This response is correct because a lifestyle information questionnaire includes the following important components: (1) physical activity feelings, barriers, preferences, and history, (2) family history and social support, (3) occupation, (4) stressors, (5) dietary patterns, and (6) hobbies and leisure activities. This information aids the personal trainer in developing a sound program for the client. Additionally, it provides an opportunity for rapport-building as the client and personal trainer discuss and clarify any concerns associated with the training program. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 163 Which of the following must be known in order to perform a comprehensive evaluation of a client's lifestyle? A. Stressors B. Gender C. Education D. Income - ANSWER A. Stressors This response is correct because a lifestyle information questionnaire includes the following important components: (1) physical activity feelings, barriers, preferences, and history, (2) family history and social support, (3) occupation, (4) stressors, (5) dietary patterns, and (6) hobbies and leisure activities. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 163; 2nd ed., pg. 163
D. Use a heart rate monitor to measure heart rate - ANSWER A. Use the rating of perceived exertion to measure intensity This response is correct because beta-blockers decrease an individual's resting, exercise, and maximal heart rates. This reduction in heart rate requires modifying the method used for determining exercise intensity. Using the Borg Scale of Perceived Exertion or the newer modified 0 - 10 scale of perceived exertion is appropriate for monitoring an aerobic exercise program for someone on beta-blockers. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 162, 221-222; 2nd ed., pgs. 162 & 217 Your client has started taking beta-blocker medication after eight weeks of training. Which of the following should you do? A. Reduce the target heart-rate training zone by 20%. B. Keep the target heart-rate training zone the same. C. Increase intensity level in order to elevate heart rate. D. Have his physician recommend appropriate exercise intensities. - ANSWER D. Have the physician recommend appropriate training intensities. This is the most appropriate response listed. Since this is a newly-prescribed medication, it is best to communicate with the client's physician regarding appropriate exercise intensities as well as any other limitations that may now be present. Additionally, using a rating of perceived exertion scale to monitor intensity is an acceptable alternative to heart-rate monitoring. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 241-242; 2nd ed., pg. 235 The risk of hypotension in the pregnant exerciser can be minimized by _______________. A. Encouraging the exerciser to perform supine abdominal work B. Replacing supine positions with semirecumbent and prone positions C. Using the Valsalva maneuver during strength training D. Introducing the client to Kegel exercises - ANSWER B. Replacing supine positions with semi-recumbent and prone positions This response is correct. The supine position allows the weight of the uterus to press against the blood
vessels, especially the inferior vena cava. This pressure causes a restriction in blood flow, which may cause a reduction in blood pressure, cardiac output, and blood flow to the fetus. Clients should be advised to avoid the supine position after the first trimester of pregnancy. Supine positions may be replaced with semirecumbent positions, and prone positions replaced with an all-fours position or an elbows-and-knees position. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 365-367; 2nd ed., pgs. 345- Which of the following is a well-stated goal for an overweight client? A. I will lose 55 lb (25 kg) in 6 months by exercising and strength training. B. I will start dieting and strength training 3-5 days a week. C. I will lose 3 lb (1.5 kg) a week by dieting and exercising 5-7 days a week. D. I will lose 1 lb (0.5 kg) a week by dieting and exercising 3-5 days a week for the next 3 months. - ANSWER D. I will lose 1 lb (0.5 kg) a week by dieting and exercising 3 - 5 days a week for the next 3 months. This response is correct. The goal is well-stated and follows the ACSM guidelines for safe and effective weight loss. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 396-397; 2nd ed., pgs. 376- You are reviewing lifestyle information of the potential client described below: Male, age 40 Height: 5'7" (170 cm) Weight: 200 lb (90 kg) RHR: 70 BP: 124/ Occupation: Finance Manager Highest education completed: college Marital status: married, two children Physical activity history: wrestler in high school Goal: Would like to lose 40 lb and increase functional strength Submaximal exercise test result: VO2max of 40 mL/kg/min (fair) Push-ups test: Fair Half sit-ups test: Fair Based on this information, which of the following is the MOST realistic goal for the first two months?
clients as well. After several months of training a more intense program may be appropriate. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 360-362; 2nd ed., pgs. 340- Bertha is a fit middle-aged woman. She has received medical clearance to exercise and has been prescribed diuretic medication for 6 months. Which of the following recommendations is MOST appropriate? A. Refrain from performing high-intensity exercise. B. Consume fluids before, during, and after exercise. C. Minimize duration to no more than 30 minutes per session. D. Monitor intensity using RPE instead of heart rate. - ANSWER B. Consume fluids before, during, and after exercise This response is the most appropriate because diuretic medications increase the excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys, which may lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Since diuretics decrease blood volume, they may predispose an exerciser to dehydration. Therefore, adequate fluid intake before, during, and after exercise is important. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 162; 2nd ed., pg. 162 Which of the following is among the possible side effects of diuretic medication? A. Decreased heart rate B. Increased blood volume C. Water retention in the extremities D. Electrolyte imbalance - ANSWER D. Electrolyte imbalance This response is correct because the primary effect of diuretic medication is increased excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys, which may cause electrolyte imbalances and cardiac arrhythmias. Since the diuretics may also decrease blood volume, they may predispose an exerciser to dehydration. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 162; 2nd ed., pg. 162 A reduction in peripheral vascular resistance is a primary benefit of exercise in controlling ____________.
A. Peripheral vascular disease B. Diabetes C. Hypertension D. Asthma - ANSWER C. Hypertension This is the correct response because high blood pressure is a condition that causes increased peripheral resistance. Regular aerobic exercise appears to reduce both systolic and diastolic blood pressure by an average of 10 mmHg, thereby reducing peripheral vascular resistance. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 214; 2nd ed., pgs. 330- To experience a significant improvement in fitness, unfit individuals require a _______________. A. Higher training dose than fit individuals B. Lower training dose than fit individuals C. Longer training duration than fit individuals D. Higher training intensity than fit individuals - ANSWER B. Lower training dose than fit individuals This response is correct. Most unfit individuals need lower intensity, duration, and frequency programming than their more fit counterparts to give their unconditioned bodies adequate time to adapt to the higher demands of exercise. Additionally, unfit individuals experience higher gains in fitness improvements through lower doses of exercise than do fit exercisers. This is a result of the fact that fitter individuals are closer to reaching their fitness potential than unfit exercisers and have less room for improvement. Longer training ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 218, 2nd ed, pg. 318- You have just checked your client's heart rate after a 5-minute warm-up on the stationary bicycle and noticed that her heart rate is 15 beats per minute higher than usual. She informs you that she is taking a decongestant for her cold. You should _______________. A. Refer her to a physician for medical clearance B. Have her finish the remainder of her workout at the same intensity
This is the most appropriate program to improve a client's initial level of conditioning. All parameters fall within the ACSM guidelines for cardiorespiratory endurance progression in the improvement conditioning stage. These guidelines consist of an intensity of 50-85% of VO2max, a frequency of 3- 5 days per week and a duration of 20-60 minutes per session. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed. pg. 226; 2nd ed. pg. 221 When exercising in a hot environment, it is recommended that a person drink approximately __________. A. 2 to 4 fluid ounces of a sports drink every 10-15 minutes B. 3 to 6 fluid ounces of water every 10-15 minutes C. 32 fluid ounces of water within 30 minutes prior to, and following exercise D. 1 ounce of fluid for every ounce of weight lost during exercise - ANSWER B. 3 to 6 fluid ounces of water every 10-15 minutes This response is correct. The guideline for fluid replenishment while exercising in a hot environment is to drink at least 3-6 ounces of water every 10-15 minutes during exercise. Additionally, drink 8 ounces of water 20-30 minutes prior to exercise and 8-10 ounces of water in the 30 minutes following exercise. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 141; 2nd ed., pg. 141 When using a medicine ball for upper-body plyometric training, which of the following is activated when the muscular contraction is initiated by catching a medicine ball? A. Pacinian corpuscles B. Muscle spindles C. Extrafusal fibers D. Golgi tendon organs - ANSWER B. Muscle spindles This response is correct. The muscle spindle responds to a quick stretch of its associated muscle fibers by creating a sudden, reflexive, protective muscular contraction. In the case of catching a medicine ball, the muscle fibers of the anterior shoulder girdle and triceps are quickly stretched as they are called into eccentric action to decelerate the velocity of the incoming ball. The muscle spindles are activated by this
quick movement and respond by calling on the muscles of the anterior shoulder girdle and triceps to quickly contract, which results in the participant throwing the ball in return. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 309-312; 2nd ed., pgs. 295- What is the prime mover involved during flexion of the knee joint? A. Rectus femoris B. Biceps femoris C. Vastus lateralis D. Vastus medialis - ANSWER B. Biceps femoris This response is correct. The biceps femoris has two major actions hip extension and knee flexion. It is included as one of the muscles that make up the hamstrings group. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 52; 2nd ed., pg. 52 Your client has plateaued in her progress levels. Upon further review of the exercise record, you notice that she has been averaging only two sessions per week over the last four weeks. Your BEST recommendation is to _______________. A. Suspect "burnout" and tell her to take a week off from training B. Increase the frequency of training to three times per week C. Tell her that exercise should be a priority and that she must attend more sessions D. Lower her intensity level by 10% to increase compliance - ANSWER B. Increase the frequency of training to three times per week This is the best recommendation as it will bring her up to the minimum recommended guideline for frequency of physical activity and perhaps help her progress through her plateau. The personal trainer also may want to discuss the reasons for the client's two-session-per-week average. Perhaps the client's work or family obligations are getting in the way. If this is the case, the personal trainer may need to come up with more convenient alternatives for exercise for the client. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 226; 2nd ed, pg. 220- The results of a client's re-evaluation step test show a similar recovery heart rate to the initial evaluation. This indicates _______________.
in shorter bouts of exercise as long as 30 minutes total is accomplished by the end of the day. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 328-330; 2nd ed., pgs. 310- According to ACSM and the Centers for Disease Control, the MINIMUM amount of physical activity required for health benefits is _______________. A. 20 minutes of high-intensity activity, 3 days per week B. 40 minutes of low-intensity activity, 5 to 7 days per week C. 30 minutes of moderate-intensity, 5 to 7 days per week D. 60 minutes of moderate-intensity, 3 days per week - ANSWER C. 30 minutes of moderate-intensity, 5 to 7 days per week This response is correct. Stated another way, the guideline is 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity on most, preferably all, days of the week. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 328-330; 2nd ed., pgs. 310- What should be emphasized during the first 6 to 12 weeks of a beginner's exercise program? A. Attendance B. Long-term goals C. Increasing muscular strength and power D. Improving anthropometric measurements - ANSWER A. Attendance This is the most appropriate response because behavior change works best when the final objective can be reduced to component parts that the client can address one step at a time. Research suggests that focused, rather than broad multi-component programming yields better initial outcomes. Therefore, emphasizing the attendance behavior in the first 6-12 weeks will help the client to feel successful immediately without focusing on performance measures that take several weeks to improve. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 415-417; 2nd ed, pg. 336- Reducing exercise intensity is recommended in which of the following situations? A. In 70% humidity at room temperature B. In 50% humidity at near freezing
C. At an altitude of 1500 feet (455 meters) D. Following a 2-week period of complete rest - ANSWER D. Following a 2-week period of complete rest This response is correct. Studies have demonstrated that within two weeks after the cessation of regular physical activity, significant reductions in VO2max can occur. This is an important concept for personal trainers to understand as they may train clients who return after being ill or from being on vacation for several weeks. Lowering exercise intensity and gradually increasing it to pre-rest levels is appropriate. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 219-223; 2nd ed., pgs. 215- Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question? A. "What do you hope to achieve from an exercise program?" B. "Do you enjoy exercising?" C. "Are you more interested in weight training or flexibility training?" D. "Have you had success in previous exercise programs?" - ANSWER A. "What do you hope to achieve from an exercise program?" This response is correct because it allows the client to explore his/her own thoughts without being hemmed in to a short response such as "yes" or "no." This is the best type of question for a personal trainer to ask when trying to get a deeper understanding of what the client is trying to express. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 394-395; 2nd ed., pgs. 374- Which exercise is considered high-risk for a client with a history of impingement syndrome? A. Seated row B. Lateral raise below shoulder height C. Incline shoulder press D. Decline chest press - ANSWER C. Incline shoulder press This response is considered high-risk for a client with a history of shoulder impingement because it requires the client to lift the arms above shoulder level and overhead. Shoulder impingement syndrome is caused by swollen rotator cuff muscles that get pinched between the shoulder
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 16; 2nd ed., pg. 16 When scheduling your client for reassessment, you should inform your client to_______________. A. Practice the assessment once before the actual reassessment B. Refrain from taking any medication C. Avoid the use of stimulants before the assessment D. Refrain from eating for at least 8 hours before the assessment - ANSWER C. Avoid the use of stimulants before the assessment This is an appropriate recommendation for a personal trainer to give to a client. Stimulants such as caffeine affect exercise heart rate and may skew the results of fitness testing. Therefore, the fitness testing data is more reliable if the client avoids stimulants prior to the assessment. However, if a client is taking a stimulant under the direction of a physician, the personal trainer must refrain from advising the client to stop taking it before the assessment. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 415-420, 2nd ed, pgs. 170- What type of body language BEST conveys empathy, warmth, and genuineness to a potential client? A. Forward lean and crossed arms B. Open position with arms and legs uncrossed C. Backward lean and squared shoulders D. Crossed arms and uncrossed legs - ANSWER B. Open position with arms and legs uncrossed This response best conveys empathy, warmth, and genuineness. The best posture for communicating interest is one in which the personal trainer is facing the client squarely at eye level and leaning toward the client in a relaxed manner maintaining an open position with arms and legs uncrossed. This posture says "I am interested in you and am ready to listen." ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 391-393; 2nd ed., pgs. 370- Which of the following is MOST critical to the development of the client/trainer relationship?
A. A comprehensive contract B. A flexible and accommodating schedule C. A development of trust D. A persistent expression of optimism - ANSWER C. A development of trust This response is correct. In order to develop a strong personal trainer/client relationship, a good rapport must be established. To establish rapport the personal trainer must exhibit empathy, warmth, and genuineness toward the client. Rapport means a relationship of mutual trust, harmony, or emotional affinity and it begins at first contact. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 391; 2nd ed., pgs. 370- Which of the following produces a stretch reflex when stimulated? A. Muscle spindles B. Sarcomeres C. Golgi tendon organ D. Motor end plates - ANSWER A. Muscle spindles This response is correct. The stretch reflex is the phenomenon associated with the activation of the muscle spindle. The muscle spindle responds to a quick stretch of its associated muscle fibers by creating a sudden, reflexive, protective muscular contraction. This protective muscular contraction is called the stretch reflex. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 26 & 309-310; 2nd ed., pg. 26 & 295- Exercise has been shown to be an effective stress-management technique because it _______________. A. Causes the release of catecholamines B. Provides a positive distraction C. Suppresses T-cell function D. Lowers resting heart rate - ANSWER B. Provides a positive distraction This response is correct because, mentally, exercise provides an outlet for negative emotions such as frustration, anger, and irritability, thereby promoting a more positive mood and outlook. Exercise also allows individuals to focus on something other than the stressors in their lives. When people are
