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ACE Personal Training Certification
Kcal/g carb - correct answer ✔✔ 4 Kcal/g fat - correct answer ✔✔ 9 Kcal/g protein - correct answer ✔✔ 4 Intrinsic motivation - correct answer ✔✔Motivation from internal states such as enjoyment or personal satisfaction Extrinsic motivation - correct answer ✔✔Motivation from external rewards such as material or social rewards Self-efficacy - correct answer ✔✔One's belief in his or her ability to change or to perform specific behaviors Most important source of self-efficacy? - correct answer ✔✔Past experience How to prevent relapse? - correct answer ✔✔Plan ahead and be prepared 3 different types of feedback - correct answer ✔✔Reinforcement, error correction, encouragement SMART goals - correct answer ✔✔Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Time bound 4 stages of client-trainer relationship - correct answer ✔✔Rapport, Investigation, Planning, Action Rapport - correct answer ✔✔Relationship marked by mutual trust and understanding
Investigation - correct answer ✔✔Reviewing health and fitness date, test results, medical clearance and client's goals and exercise history. 5 Listening Strategies - correct answer ✔✔Encouraging, paraphrasing, questioning, reflecting, summarizing Planning - correct answer ✔✔Designing exercise program in partnership with the client using both listening and teaching skills. Clients are ready to begin working out. Action - correct answer ✔✔Clients are ready to workout and have the ability to effectively learn new motor skills. Ultimate goal for every client? - correct answer ✔✔Adherence to exercise program 3 Stages of learning - correct answer ✔✔Cognitive, associative, autonomous Cognitive learning - correct answer ✔✔Early stages, trying to understand new skill, movements uncoordinated or jerky, use tell-show-do technique. Associative learning - correct answer ✔✔Begin to master basics and are ready for specific feedback to help refine the skill. Autonomous learning - correct answer ✔✔Clients perform motor skills effectively and naturally; teach less, monitor more Health Belief Model - correct answer ✔✔People will engage in physical activity based on their perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem and the pros/cons of adapting that 4 phases of functional movement and resistance training - correct answer ✔✔Stability and mobility, movement, load, performance
At what phase should a client first pass VT2 and start to work between VT1 and VT2, and past VT2? - correct answer ✔✔Phase 3 (anaerobic-endurance) Which zone (2 (between VT1 and 2) or 3 (above VT2)) should more time be spent in during phase 3? - correct answer ✔✔Zone 3 (10-20% of training time) At what phase will the fast glycolytic system be overloaded and challenge the phosphagen system? - correct answer ✔✔Phase 4 (anaerobic-power) What is the difference between zone 3 in phases 3 and 4? - correct answer ✔✔RPE is 9-10 in phase 4, while RPE is 7-8 in phase 3. What kind of document is the PAR-Q? - correct answer ✔✔Short, simple medical/health questionnaire. Not recommended if doing vigorous exercise. At what age do men and women (different) gain a positive risk factor point? - correct answer ✔✔>=45 years men, >=55 years women True or false: a health-risk appraisal does not need to be included as a participation screen? - correct answer ✔✔False Where are the two most common places to take pulse? - correct answer ✔✔Radial (outside bone of supinated wrist) or carotid artery (under chin). What is considered a fast RHR? - correct answer ✔✔>100 bpm. What is the average RHR range? - correct answer ✔✔70-72 bpm, 60-70 bpm in men, and 72-80 bpm females. What are the 3 reasons females have higher average RHR? - correct answer ✔✔Smaller heart chamber, lower blood volume, lower hemoglobin levels.
What fingers should be used to measure RHR? - correct answer ✔✔Index and middle finger. Define blood pressure. - correct answer ✔✔outward force exerted by the blood on the vessel walls. What is SBP? - correct answer ✔✔The pressure created by the heart as it pumps blood into circulation via ventricular contraction. Higher number blood pressure What is DBP? - correct answer ✔✔The pressure that is exerted on the artery walls as blood remains in the arteries during the filling phase of the cardiac cycle. Lower number blood pressure. What is the name of the sounds made from vibrations as blood moves along the walls of the vessel? - correct answer ✔✔Korotkoff sounds. What artery is used to measure SBP and DBP? - correct answer ✔✔Brachial artery. What SBP/DBP mmHg is considered hypertension? - correct answer ✔✔>140 mmHg, >90 mmHg How does the borg 15-point scale correspond to heart rate? - correct answer ✔✔6 = 60 bpm, 20 = 200 bpm. What percentage of U.S. adults meet aerobic and resistance-training guidelines for exercise participation? - correct answer ✔✔20% What type of muscles are are used in maintaining posture? - correct answer ✔✔Type I muscle fibers. Name of back posture w/increased anterior lumbar curve from neutral - correct answer ✔✔Lordosis
Scapular winging - correct answer ✔✔Protrusion of the inferior angle and vertebral (medial) border outward. Where should the earlobe align with in good posture? - correct answer ✔✔The acromion process. If someone has a lateral tilt/forward lean/rotation, what is the suspected problem? - correct answer ✔✔Lack of core stability. If someone has an anterior tilt with forward torso lean, what are the tight muscles and what are the lengthened muscles? - correct answer ✔✔Stance-leg hip flexors = tight, rectus abdominis and hip extensors = lengthened If someone can't externally rotate forearms 90 degrees to touch the mat, what does this say about shoulder mobility? - correct answer ✔✔Potential tightness in internal rotators of the arm (subscapularis). If someone can't internally rotate forearms 70 degrees to touch the mat, what does this say about shoulder mobility? - correct answer ✔✔Potential tightness in external rotators of the arm (infraspinatus, teres minor). How long must a client hold the sharpened romberg test without failing to demonstrate adequate static balance and postural control? - correct answer ✔✔At least 30 seconds. What is the trunk lateral endurance test also called and what muscles are assessed?
- correct answer ✔✔Side-bridge test, assesses lateral core muscles. Explain the trunk flexor endurance test - correct answer ✔✔Back on a board, 60 degrees, engage abdominals to maintain flat-to-neutral spine. What are the recommended ratios for good back core muscles? - correct answer ✔✔<1.0 flexion:extension,<0.75 side bridge (each side):extension.
Tidal volume - correct answer ✔✔Volume of air inhaled and exhaled per breat (increases until high levels of intensities where it starts to decrease) VT1 - correct answer ✔✔Level of intensity blood lactate accumulates faster than it can be cleared and person breathes faster to blow off extra CO2. Well-trained individuals exercise here for 1-2 hours. Comfortable speaking, fats used=below this. VT2 - correct answer ✔✔Lactate/anaerobic threshold, occurs when lactate is rapidly increasing with intensity, and represents hyperventilation even relative to the extra CO2 being produced. 30-60 minutes sustainable in well-trained individuals. Speech is definitely not comfortable at this level. In the YMCA step test, what is the bpm? - correct answer ✔✔ 96 How long is the YMCA step test? - correct answer ✔✔3 minutes Relative strength - correct answer ✔✔Maximum force a person is able to exert in relation to his or her body weight and is calculated with: Absolute strength/Body weight What % 1-RM is 3 reps and 10 reps? - correct answer ✔✔93% and 75% What does the glenohumeral joint favor in terms of stability or mobility? - correct answer ✔✔Mobility What does the hip prefer in terms of stability or mobility? - correct answer ✔✔Mobility What does the foot prefer in terms of stability or mobility? - correct answer ✔✔Stability What kind of movement compensations occur when mobility is compromised? - correct answer ✔✔The joint will attempt to incorporate movement into another plane, or other more stable joints will compromise some degree of stability to facilitate level of mobility needed.
What kind of muscle fibers are generally contained in greater quantities in muscles that act primarily as stabilizers? - correct answer ✔✔Type I (slow-twitch) What is the basic principle behind a programming sequence in phase I? - correct answer ✔✔Proximal stability facilitates distal mobility. What kind of clients should warm up with static stretches? - correct answer ✔✔Deconditioned clients with poor flexibility and muscle imbalance. What kind of clients should warm up with ballistic stretches? - correct answer ✔✔Performance athletes with good skill and flexibility True or false: conditioned clients with good flexibility and muscle balance should incorporate myofascial release into their warm ups? - correct answer ✔✔True What kind of stretches should be incorporated for all clients while exercising? - correct answer ✔✔Dynamic stretches What kind of stretching should be done post-workout? - correct answer ✔✔Myofascial release, PNF, and static stretches How does a client perform PNF? - correct answer ✔✔Hold isometric contraction of agonist for atleast 6 seconds, followed by 10-30 second assisted or passive static stretch What is autogenic inhibition? - correct answer ✔✔Activation of a golgi tendon organ inhibits a muscle spindle response. When does static stretching (low-force) activate a GTO response? (how many seconds) - correct answer ✔✔10 seconds What happens when you hold a stretch for more than 10 seconds? - correct answer ✔✔Stresses the collagen fibers, pulls them apart and lengthens the tissue (creep).
What muscle is the primary activator of the core and what kind of tension does it create? - correct answer ✔✔The transverse abdominis, deep to the rectus abdominis, creates a hoop tension (belt). What is bracing? - correct answer ✔✔Co-contraction of the core and abdominal muscles to create a more rigid and wider base of support for spinal stabilization. What is the three-stage model for core and balance training? - correct answer ✔✔Core function-static balance-dynamic balance. What are two good exercises to promote proximal stability (core function)? - correct answer ✔✔Supine drawing-in, and quadruped drawing-in with extremity movement. What are two good exercises for proximal mobility? - correct answer ✔✔Cat-camel, or pelvic tilts (and variations) What is the difference between a mono- and bi-articulate muscle? - correct answer ✔✔Mono- only crosses one joint (soleus), and bi- crosses two (hamstrings). What should precede stability within the scapulothoracic region? - correct answer ✔✔Thoracic mobility, tissue extensibility, healthy rotator cuff muscle function Should self-myofascial release precede or come after static stretching of the shoulder capsule? - correct answer ✔✔Precede If someone stands with pronated feet, what muscles are likely affected and what joints are likely problematic? - correct answer ✔✔Ankle mobility and calf flexibility What are the vertebral names(superior->inferior) and how many vertebrae are in each one? - correct answer ✔✔Cervical (7), thoracic (12), lumbar (5) When is the body considered stable? - correct answer ✔✔When the line of gravity is in line with the base of support.
During the initial training period(10 weeks), would you expect an older or younger person to add more lean muscle? - correct answer ✔✔Neither, should add about the same amount. However, total-body muscle mass diminishes during older-adult years. Do type II or type I muscle fibers experience greater size increases? - correct answer ✔✔Type II Can people be born with more of one type of muscle fiber than the other? - correct answer ✔✔Yes, leads to people who are genetically predisposed to experience muscle hypertrophy. What are the purposes of type IIx and type IIa muscle fibers? - correct answer ✔✔IIx is more for explosive/anaerobic training, while IIa is more for endurance. What is the most important factor in attaining large muscle size? - correct answer ✔✔Muscle length relative to bone length. Tendon lengths differ causing muscle lengths to differ. Why are shorter limbs more beneficial for strength performance? - correct answer ✔✔They provide shorter resistance force arms and require less muscle force to move a given resistance. How long should repetitions be for new clients and how long should each phase(concentric v. eccentric) be? - correct answer ✔✔6 seconds. 1-3 for concentric (shortening) and 2-4 for eccentric. About how long does it take for local energy substrates to replenish after a set? - correct answer ✔✔95% renewed in 2 minutes What is the double-progressive strength training protocol? - correct answer ✔✔First progression is adding repetitions and the second progression is adding resistance in 5% increments. What is the rate that a client will lose strength at compared to that at which it was gained? - correct answer ✔✔One-half the rate that it was gained.
What is a good way to fight diminishing returns? - correct answer ✔✔Switch training exercise if you reach a strength plateau. What is the advantage of periodization over non-periodized exercise programs? - correct answer ✔✔Frequently changing demands on the neuromuscular system that require progressively higher levels of stress adaptation. From largest to smallest rank macrocycle, microcycle, and mesocycle - correct answer ✔✔Macrocycle->mesocycle->microcycle What is the main difference between linear periodization and undulating periodization? - correct answer ✔✔Linear provides a consistent training protocol within each microcycle and changes the training variables after each microcycle whereas undulating changes training protocol both within and after microcycles. True or false: one set of resistance exercise is as effective as multiple sets for beginners? - correct answer ✔✔True How many exercises per week should someone looking to increase muscular endurance perform? - correct answer ✔✔ 3 What percentage of maximum resistance should be used for a client seeking muscular endurance? - correct answer ✔✔60-70% How many repetitions should a client seeking muscular endurance perform? - correct answer ✔✔12-16, increase by 5% when 16 reps How much rest time should be taken in between sets for clients seeking muscular endurance? - correct answer ✔✔<=60 seconds How long are typical muscular endurance workouts and how can you shorten them?
- correct answer ✔✔Typically 90 minutes, using circuit training can shorten them.
What is the main difference between whey isolate and other whey forms? - correct answer ✔✔Isolate is lactose-free Is MHR generally higher in small individuals or large individuals? - correct answer ✔✔Small individuals What is the lactate threshold(OBLA)? - correct answer ✔✔The point at which lactate production becomes greater than lactate removal. True or false: the metabolic response to exercise is generally linear. - correct answer ✔✔False, nonlinear What do blood buffers used in the body to help neutralize acidosis cause an increase in in the body and what is the body's response? - correct answer ✔✔CO2, increase in ventilation If someone were to split their workouts throughout the day, what is the shortest length of time one bout should be? - correct answer ✔✔10 minutes How many minutes per week of moderate intensity exercise should be performed? - correct answer ✔✔150 minutes (>=30 min/session) How many minutes per week of vigorous intensity exercise should be performed? - correct answer ✔✔75 minutes, (>=20 min/session) How many minutes per week of moderate/vigorous intensity exercise should be performed for overweight or obese clients? - correct answer ✔✔300 minutes mod, or 150 min vigorous What is the SAID principle? (principle of specificity) - correct answer ✔✔Specific adaptations to the imposed demands
What is the most appropriate variable to manipulate initially for a client? - correct answer ✔✔Exercise duration What is peripheral vasodilation? - correct answer ✔✔When blood is brought to the skin surface to be cooled. What is one of the other consequences along with dehydration when exercising in the heat and not replenishing fluids? - correct answer ✔✔Blood volume declines What energy pathway is used in phase 4 of the cardiorespiratory training phase? - correct answer ✔✔Phosphagen system What is the focus of phase 1 in the cardiorespiratory training system? - correct answer ✔✔Creating positive exercise experiences to help sedentary clients become regular exercisers Why will most clients never reach phase 3 of the cardiorespiratory training system?
- correct answer ✔✔All non-competitive fitness goals can be achieved in phase 2. Would you need to measure VT2 in phase 2 of the cardiorespiratory training system? - correct answer ✔✔No Should you ever leave zone 1 in phase 1 of the cardiorespiratory training system? - correct answer ✔✔No When can clients progress to phase 2 of the cardiorespiratory training system? - correct answer ✔✔After they are consistent with their cardiorespiratory exercise and can comfortably perform a minimum of 20 to 30 minutes of steady-state cardiorespiratory exercise in zone 1. Can you progress into zone 3 in phase 2 of the cardiorespiratory training system? - correct answer ✔✔Yes, generally only when a client wants to move into phase 3.
What is CAD? - correct answer ✔✔Atherosclerotic heart disease, characterized by narrowing of the coronary arteries that supply the heart muscle with blood and oxygen. How many METs should a client who experienced a medical event or treatment that required hospitalization atleast 3 weeks ago be able to perform? - correct answer ✔✔ 7 What kind of program should low-risk clients with CAD do? (reps, exercises, x/week, intensity) - correct answer ✔✔12-15 reps for 1 set per exercise, 8-10 exercises, twice/week, 11-14 max RPE What levels of SBP and DBP constitute hypertension? - correct answer ✔✔SBP >=140 mmHg , DBP >=90 mmHg What levels of SBP and DBP are signals to discontinue exercise? - correct answer ✔✔250 mmHg or 115 mmHg What kind of muscle contraction should be avoided for clients with hypertension? - correct answer ✔✔Isometric How often should hypertensive clients exercise? - correct answer ✔✔4-7, but ideally every day What are the two main types of strokes and what is the difference between them? - correct answer ✔✔Ischemic and hemorrhagic. Ischemic - blood supply to brain is cut off, hemorrhagic - blood vessel in brain bursts. Most strokes are ischemic True or false: clients that have suffered a stroke have a window of 3-6 months to improve motor function. - correct answer ✔✔False, even years after a stroke it can be beneficial What is the most important variable in a program for a client that has suffered a stroke in the past? - correct answer ✔✔Duration of exercise; should begin very short (3-5 min bouts) and increase to 30 minutes over time
Why is LDL considered the bad cholesterol? - correct answer ✔✔Its role in atherogenesis, which is the early stages of atherosclerosis. True or false: HDL levels are inversely related to CAD? - correct answer ✔✔True, higher the level of HDL, lower the risk of developing CAD What have studies found regarding the relationship between exercise and dyslipidemia? - correct answer ✔✔Exercise may reduce LDL and non-HDL cholesterol, but no consistent effect on HDL cholesterol How much exercise should clients with dyslipidemia perform per week? - correct answer ✔✔150 to 200 minutes What is type I diabetes? - correct answer ✔✔When the body's immune system destroys pancreatic beta cells that are responsible for producing insulin. What commonly occurs with type I diabetes? - correct answer ✔✔Excessive thirst and hunger, frequent urination, weight loss, blurred vision, hyperglycemia (chronically elevated blood glucose level) What is type II diabetes? - correct answer ✔✔Most common form of diabetes, insulin resistance initially and pancreas gradually loses its ability to produce it. What must you do before and after exercise session with clients with diabetes? - correct answer ✔✔Measure blood glucose levels; if below 100 mg/dL, then do not exercise, if greater than 300 mg/dL, do not exercise. What are the primary goals of exercise with clients with type I diabetes? - correct answer ✔✔Better glucose regulation and reduced heart disease risk. What are the primary goals of exercise with clients with type II diabetes? - correct answer ✔✔Better glucose regulation and weight loss. Can clients with type I or type II diabetes exercise at higher intensities? - correct answer ✔✔Type II
