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ACE Personal Trainer
Planning ahead and being prepared - correct answer ✔✔What is the most important tool when dealing with a client who is at risk for relapse? Rapport - correct answer ✔✔The foundation of the ACE Integrated Fitness Training Model Rapport Stage - correct answer ✔✔The personal trainer sets the scene for establishing understanding and trust Physical appearance, facial expressions, attire & self-confidence - correct answer ✔✔Factors that influence clients' first impressions Sense of caring, respect, clear communication & professionalism - correct answer ✔✔Characteristics of positive experiences with personal trainers Voice quality - correct answer ✔✔develop a voice that is firm and confident to communicate professionalism Hand gestures - correct answer ✔✔fluid hand gestures while explaining something and when listening hands should be quiet Investigation stage - correct answer ✔✔gather information such as medical concerns, fitness assessment results, body weight & exercise history Investigation stage - correct answer ✔✔Use this stage not only to learn about a client's current health & fitness but also to understand and client's exercise likes and dislikes effective listening - correct answer ✔✔Occurs when you listen to a client carefully, empathetically and with an open mind, trying to put yourself in their shoes
Specific - correct answer ✔✔Goals must be clear & unambiguous, stating specifically what should be accomplished Measurable - correct answer ✔✔Clients can see whether they are making progress Attainable - correct answer ✔✔Goals should be realistically attainable by the individual client Relevant - correct answer ✔✔Goals must be relevant to the particular interests, needs and abilities of the individual client Time bound - correct answer ✔✔Goals must contain estimated timelines for completion SMART goals - correct answer ✔✔Specific Measurable Attainable Relevant Time-bound Process goal - correct answer ✔✔A goal a person achieves by doing something, such as completing an exercise session or attending a talk on stress management. Product goal - correct answer ✔✔something achieved, like weight loss or a resistance lifted on a strength training machine Feeling more energetic & less stressed - correct answer ✔✔Additional goals clients might not think of Motivational interviewing - correct answer ✔✔a method of speaking with people in a way that motivates them to make a decision to change their behavior; may help clients feel the need to become more active and make a decision to start exercising
Autonomous stage of learning - correct answer ✔✔Clients are performing motor skills effectively and naturally; the personal trainer is doing less teaching and more monitoring Rapport stage - correct answer ✔✔Personal trainers begin to establish trust & understanding with their clients Investigation stage - correct answer ✔✔Personal trainers use good listening skills to gather information from clients Planning stage - correct answer ✔✔Personal trainers use both good listening and teaching skills to design an exercise program in partnership with the client Action stage - correct answer ✔✔Personal trainers use effective, individualized teaching techniques to help clients learn motor skills and increase self-confidence Ultimate success of a trainer - correct answer ✔✔Based on how well she understands each individual client 2008 US Dept of Health & Human Services physical activity guidelines - correct answer ✔✔150 minutes a week of moderate intensity aerobic physical activity or 75 minutes of vigorous physical activity; additionally, it was recommended adults incorporate muscle-strengthening activities at least 2 days a week The goal - correct answer ✔✔Help teach & inspire each individual client to adopt a life long activity program Health belief model - correct answer ✔✔The most accepted theory focusing on health beliefs; predicts people will engage in a health behavior based on perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem & the pros/cons of adopting the behavior Perceived seriousness - correct answer ✔✔The feelings one has about the seriousness of contracting an illness or leaving an illness untreated
Perceived susceptibility - correct answer ✔✔Based on a person's subjective appraisal of the likelihood of developing the problem Cues to action - correct answer ✔✔Events, either bodily or environmental, that motivate people to make a change Self-efficacy - correct answer ✔✔Subjective perception of one's own ability to succeed; believed to influence thought patterns, emotional responses & behavior; also positively related to motivation Six sources of self-efficacy - correct answer ✔✔Past performance experience; vicarious experience; verbal persuasion; physiological state appraisals; emotional state & mood appraisals; imaginal experiences Past performance experience - correct answer ✔✔Most influential source of self- efficacy information Vicarious experience - correct answer ✔✔Important for a client who is starting a brand new exercise program and who has little previous experience w/ a supervised program; the observation or knowledge of someone else who is successfully participating in a similar program or who has done so in the past, can increase one's self efficacy Verbal persuasion - correct answer ✔✔Typically occurs in the form of feedback from teaching or encouragement Physiological state appraisals - correct answer ✔✔Related to exercise participation are important because a client may perceive arousal, pain or fatigue Emotional state & mood appraisal - correct answer ✔✔Negative mood states & emotional beliefs associated with exercise such as fear, anxiety, anger & frustration are related to reduced levels of self efficacy & lowers levels of participation
Processes of change - correct answer ✔✔2nd component of Transtheoretical model of behavior change; Most important for personal trainers to understand as it entails the processes of change that people use to get from one stage to the next 1st step of processes of change - correct answer ✔✔Identify the current stage of the client Self-efficacy - correct answer ✔✔3rd component of Transtheoretical model of behavior change (TTM): There is a circular relationship between self- efficacy & behavioral change, such that a person's self-efficacy is related to whether he or she will participate in an activity & a person's participation in activity influences his or her self-efficacy level. Self-efficacy - correct answer ✔✔Acts as both a determinant and an outcome of behavioral change Past performance experience - correct answer ✔✔Most important & powerful predictor of self-efficacy Decisional balance - correct answer ✔✔Final of the 4 components of the Transtheoretical model of behavioral change: refers to the number of pros & cons perceived about adopting and/or maintaining an activity program Relapse - correct answer ✔✔Can occur at any stage of Transtheoretical model behavioral change (TTM), including during the maintenance stage Triggers of relapse - correct answer ✔✔Any change that may occur in an individual's life, such as moving, starting school, family changes or suffering an injury One of the biggest mistakes a health & fitness professional can make - correct answer ✔✔Assuming that starting and sticking with an activity program is easy or simple Process of behavioral change - correct answer ✔✔A gradual progression that requires effort, dedication & commitment
Personal trainers job - correct answer ✔✔Provide guidance & support to help change client behaviors by influencing their attitudes, motives, emotions & performance Operant conditioning - correct answer ✔✔Process by which behaviors are influenced by their consequences; examines the behavior chains that lead to the engagement of certain behaviors and the avoidance of others, taking into account the consequences associated with each behavior Principle of operant conditioning - correct answer ✔✔Behaviors are strengthened when they are reinforced Antecedents - correct answer ✔✔Are stimuli that precede a behavior and often signal the likely consequences of the behavior Stimulus control - correct answer ✔✔Valuable tool in behavioral modification Most important component of operant conditioning - correct answer ✔✔What happens after a behavior is executed; the consequence following a behavior will influence the future occurrence of that behavior Positive reinforcement - correct answer ✔✔The presentation of a positive stimulus that increases the likelihood that the behavior will reoccur in the future Negative reinforcement - correct answer ✔✔Consists of the removal or avoidance of aversive stimuli following undesirable behavior, also increases the likelihood that the behavior will reoccur Extinction - correct answer ✔✔Occurs when a positive stimulus that once followed a behavior is removed and the likelihood that the behavior will reoccur is decreased Punishment - correct answer ✔✔Decreases the likelihood of the behavior reoccuring and consists of an aversive stimulus following an undesirable behavior
Effective cognitive behavioral techniques - correct answer ✔✔Goal setting, feedback, decision making & self monitoring Goal setting - correct answer ✔✔One of the most widely used and straightforward cognitive behavioral techniques Extrinsic feedback - correct answer ✔✔Most common type of feedback; which includes the reinforcement and encouragement that personal trainers give to their clients Feedback - correct answer ✔✔It is important for personal trainers to not give too much feedback. Instead, as efficacy & ability build, trainers should taper off the amount of external feedback they provide, encouraging the clients to start providing feedback for themselves Decision making - correct answer ✔✔Reflective of a client's ability to control a situation and choose appropriately among alternative courses of action Self monitoring - correct answer ✔✔Helps a client keep track of program participation and progress or lack thereof; this is an information-gathering process that will help clients & trainers identify potential barriers to success; requires honesty & self-reflection FITT-VP - correct answer ✔✔Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type, Volume, Progression ACE Integrated Fitness Training (IFT) Model - correct answer ✔✔Developed to provide personal trainers with a systematic & comprehensive approach to exercise programming that integrates assessments & programming to facilitate behavioral change, while also improving posture, movement, flexibility, balance, core function, cardio-respiratory fitness, muscular endurance & muscular strength; organizes the latest experience science research into a logical system that helps trainers determine appropriate assessments, exercises & progressions for clients based on their unique health, fitness, needs & goals Foundation of the ACE IFT Model - correct answer ✔✔Built upon rapport
Rapport - correct answer ✔✔Should be developed early through open communication & initial positive experiences with exercise, and then enhanced through behavioral strategies that help build long term adherence Sequential approach to conducting client assessments - correct answer ✔✔Begins with reviewing the client's health history; discussing desires, preferences, and general goals; completing additional questionnaires; and then determining which assessments are relevant and the timelines in which to conduct them ACE IFT Model's two principal training components - correct answer ✔✔Functional movement & resistance training; Cardiorespiratory training Phase 1 ACE IFT Model - correct answer ✔✔Primary focus is on improving function and/or health by correcting imbalances through training to improve joint stability & mobility prior to training movement patterns & building an aerobic base to improve parameters of cardiorespiratory health Phase 2 ACE IFT Model - correct answer ✔✔Primary focus to progress clients toward improved fitness by introducing aerobic intervals to improve aerobic efficiency and training movement patterns prior to loading the movements Phase 3 ACE IFT Model - correct answer ✔✔Clients progress to higher levels of fitness through load training and the development of anaerobic endurance, with programming at the advanced stages of phase 3 moving into the performance area of the function-health-fitness- performance continuum Phase 4 ACE IFT Model - correct answer ✔✔Focused entirely on improving performance through training for power, speed, agility, reactivity and anaerobic power; only clients with performance-oriented goals will reach this phase To help a client transition to the action stage of behavioral change - correct answer ✔✔The trainer should make exercise fun & emphasize regular adherence to a program first before switching the primary focus toward any other specific goals such as weight loss or changes in body composition Functional movement & resistance training - correct answer ✔✔Individuals who have weak core muscles, muscle imbalances, and/or postural deviations are in poor
Pushing movements - correct answer ✔✔Occur in four directions: forward, overhead, lateral and downward Pulling movements - correct answer ✔✔Occur during an exercise such as a bent over row or pull-up or when opening a car door or picking up a child Rotational (spiral) movement - correct answer ✔✔Occurs during many common movements, such as the rotation of the thoracic spine during walking or when reaching across the body to pick up an object on the left side & placing it to the right side Phase 3 of ACE IFT Model of the functional movement & resistance training component: Load Training - correct answer ✔✔The exercise program is advanced with the addition of an external force or increasing the external load, placing emphasis on muscle force production where the variables of training can be manipulated to address a variety of exercise goals; goals may include positive changes in body composition, muscular strength, muscle hypertrophy, or muscular endurance or simply looking more "toned"; assessments of muscular strength & endurance are introduced to facilitate program design and quantify progress; the focus is on strength training to improve muscle motor unit recruitment, while the goal of power training is to increase rate coding, or the speed at which the motor units stimulate the muscles to contract & produce force Phase 4 of ACE IFT Model of the functional movement & resistance training component: Performance Training - correct answer ✔✔Emphasizes specific training to improve speed, agility, quickness, reactivity and power Power - correct answer ✔✔Needed in all sports and activities that require repeated acceleration and deceleration. Defined as both the velocity of force production and the rate of performing work Power-based training - correct answer ✔✔Can also be effective strategy to help clients improve their body composition levels, since this can be one of the most efficient methods of expending energy during a training session Phase 1 of ACE IFT Model of cardiorespiratory training: Aerobic-base Training - correct answer ✔✔Focused on developing an initial aerobic base in clients who have
been sedentary or near sedentary; the intent is to develop a stable aerobic base upon which the client can build improvements in health, endurance, energy, mood & caloric expenditure; exercise during this phase should be performed by steady state intensities in the low to moderate range, which is in line with the lower portion of the range of the guidelines for cardiorespiratory exercise Talk test - correct answer ✔✔The easiest method for monitoring intensity with clients in aerobic base training; if the client can perform the exercise and talk comfortably in sentences that are more than a few words in length, he or she is likely below the first ventilatory threshold (VT1) RPE - correct answer ✔✔Ratings of perceived exertion Phase 1 of ACE IFT Model of cardiorespiratory training: Aerobic-base Training - correct answer ✔✔Regardless of the initial duration, the goal for all clients in this phase is to progress cardiorespiratory training by gradually increasing the duration and frequency until the client is performing cardiorespiratory exercise 3 to 5 days per week for a duration of 20 to 30 minutes at an RPE of 3 to 4; primary focus during this phase is to establish an initial aerobic base for clients who have little to no base at the time of their first personal training session, steady state exercise is recommended. No assessments are recommended during the aerobic base phase, since many of the clients who start in this phase will be unfit and may have difficulty completing an assessment of this nature Phase 2 of ACE IFT Model of cardiorespiratory training: Aerobic-efficiency Training - correct answer ✔✔Dedicated to enhancing the client's aerobic efficiency by progressing the program through increased duration of sessions, increased frequency of sessions when possible & the introduction of aerobic intervals Aerobic intervals - correct answer ✔✔The goal of these intervals will be to improve aerobic endurance by raising the intensity of exercise performed at VT1 and to improve the client's ability to utilize fat as a fuel source Phase 3 of ACE IFT Model of cardiorespiratory training: Anaerobic endurance Training - correct answer ✔✔The primary focus is on designing training programs that help improve performance in endurance events or to train fitness enthusiasts for higher levels of cardiorespiratory fitness; sometimes referred to as lactate threshold or tolerance training and is designed to increase the amount of sustained work that an individual can perform at or near VT
The investigation stage - correct answer ✔✔Identifying readiness to change behavior, identifying the client's stage of behavioral change & personality style, collecting health & safety information, learning about lifestyle preferences, interests & attitudes, understanding previous experiences & conducting assessments Planning - correct answer ✔✔Involves collaborative goal setting with the client after the investigation is complete to design an effective and comprehensive program Planning stage - correct answer ✔✔Goal setting: Programming considerations, designing motivation and adherence strategies Action - correct answer ✔✔Involves successful implementation of all programming components & providing the appropriate instruction, feedback & progression as needed Action stage - correct answer ✔✔Instruction, demonstration & execution programs; implementing strategies to improve motivation & promote long-term adherence; providing feedback & evaluation; making necessary adjustments to programs; & monitoring the overall exercise experience & progression towards goals First objective - correct answer ✔✔build a foundation for a personal relationship with the individual Second objective - correct answer ✔✔Gathering information on the client's goals & objectives is secondary Active listening - correct answer ✔✔A person shows empathy and listens as if he or she is in the speaker's shoes. This is the key to effective listening. Interviewing techniques - correct answer ✔✔minimal encouragers, paraphrasing, probing, reflecting, clarifying, informing, confronting, questioning, deflecting Minimal encouragers - correct answer ✔✔Brief words or phrases that encourage the client to share additional information
Paraphrasing - correct answer ✔✔Responding to the client's communication by restating the essence of the content of his or her communication Probing - correct answer ✔✔Asking additional questions in an attempt to gather more information Reflecting - correct answer ✔✔Restating the feelings and/or content of what the speaker conveys but with different words, this verifies information and displays empathy & understanding Clarifying - correct answer ✔✔Verifying an understanding of the content of the client's communication. Trainers must be careful not to interpret or analyze based on their own opinions or experiences Informing - correct answer ✔✔Expanding upon shared information Confronting - correct answer ✔✔Using mild to strong feedback with a client Questioning - correct answer ✔✔Directing both open-ended & close-ended questions to a client Deflecting - correct answer ✔✔Changing the focus of one individual onto another, usually to devalue and diminish the content of the communication Intrinsic motivation - correct answer ✔✔Motivation that comes from internal states such as enjoyment or personal satisfaction The purposes of pre-participation screening - correct answer ✔✔Identifying the presence, absence or signs/symptoms of known cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease; identifying individuals with medical contraindications who should be excluded from exercise or physical activity until those conditions have been corrected or are under control; detecting at-risk individuals who should first undergo medical evaluation & clinical exercise testing before initiating an exercise program; identifying those individuals with medical conditions who should participate in medically supervised programs
Informed consent or assumption of risk - correct answer ✔✔The client is acknowledging having been specifically informed about the risks associated with activity; used prior to assessments and provides evidence of disclosure of the purposes, procedures, risks & benefits associated with the assessments; not a liability waiver & therefore does not provide legal immunity Agreement and release of liability waiver - correct answer ✔✔Used to release a personal trainer from liability for injuries resulting from supervised exercise program; represents a client's voluntary abandonment of the right to file suit Health history questionnaire - correct answer ✔✔Collects more detailed medical and health information beyond the CAD risk-factor screen including the following: past & present exercise & physical activity information; medications and supplements; recent or current illnesses or injuries, including chronic or acute pain; surgery and injury history; family medical history; lifestyle information Exercise history and attitude questionnaire - correct answer ✔✔Provides the PT with a detailed background of the client's previous exercise history, including behavioral and adherence experience Medical release - correct answer ✔✔Provides the personal trainer with the client's medical information & explains physical activity limitations and/or guidelines as outlined by his or her physician Testing forms - correct answer ✔✔Used for recording testing and measurement data during the fitness assessment Injuries related to physical activity usually come from - correct answer ✔✔Aggravating an existing condition; precipitating a new condition Atherosclerosis - correct answer ✔✔Process in which fatty deposits of cholesterol and calcium accumulate on the walls of the arteries, causing them to harden, thicken and lose elasticity. When this process affects the arteries that supply the heart, it is called CAD
Angina - correct answer ✔✔Usually described as a pressure or tightness in the chest, but can also be experienced in the arm, shoulder or jaw. This pain may be accompanied by shortness of breath, sweating, nausea and palpitations Blood pressure increases with exercise - correct answer ✔✔Especially in activities involving heavy resistance, such as weight lifting, or isometric exercises. If a person's resting blood pressure is already high, it may elevate to dangerous levels during exercise, increasing the likelihood of stroke Lungs - correct answer ✔✔Extract oxygen from inhaled air and deliver it to the body's tissues via the cardiovascular system Dyspnea - correct answer ✔✔difficult or labored breathing Musculoskeletal system - correct answer ✔✔Consists of muscles, bones, tendons and ligaments that support & move the body Overuse injury - correct answer ✔✔The most common type of injury sustained by persons participating in physical activity Disuse atrophy - correct answer ✔✔May begin after just two days of inactivity for muscles surrounding an injury Metabolic diseases - correct answer ✔✔Two of the more common types are diabetes and thyroid disorders Thyroid - correct answer ✔✔A small gland in the neck that secretes hormones (thyroxine & triiodothyronine) that increase oxygen uptake and heat production and affect many metabolic functions Hyperthyroid - correct answer ✔✔Increased level of thyroxine & triiodothyronine and a higher metabolic rate Hypothyroid - correct answer ✔✔A reduced level of thyroxine & triiodothyronine and require thyroid medication to regulate their metabolism to normal levels
