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Exam Preparation
Question 1. Which Agile principle emphasizes delivering working software frequently? A) Customer collaboration over contract negotiation B) Responding to change over following a plan C) Working software over comprehensive documentation D) Individuals and interactions over processes and tools Answer: C Explanation: The Agile Manifesto states that delivering working software frequently is a core value, prioritizing functional increments over exhaustive documentation. Question 2. In SAFe, what is the primary purpose of the Program Increment (PI) Planning event? A) To define the organization’s vision for the next year B) To allocate budget across all Agile Release Trains C) To align multiple teams on a shared set of objectives for the upcoming increment D) To conduct performance reviews for team members Answer: C Explanation: PI Planning synchronizes all teams on an Agile Release Train (ART) to commit to a set of features and objectives for the next 8-12 weeks. Question 3. Which Design Thinking phase focuses on generating a wide range of possible solutions? A) Empathize B) Define C) Ideate D) Test
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Answer: C Explanation: The Ideate phase encourages divergent thinking to brainstorm many potential solutions before narrowing down. Question 4. In Scrum, what is the maximum timebox for a Sprint Review meeting? A) 30 minutes B) 1 hour C) 2 hours D) 4 hours Answer: C Explanation: For a one-month Sprint, the Sprint Review is time-boxed to a maximum of 4 hours; for shorter Sprints, it is proportionally shorter (e.g., 2 hours for a two-week Sprint). Question 5. Which work item hierarchy is correct in Azure DevOps? A) Epic → Feature → Task → User Story B) Feature → Epic → User Story → Task C) Epic → Feature → User Story → Task D) User Story → Epic → Feature → Task Answer: C Explanation: Azure DevOps organizes work as Epic → Feature → User Story (or Product Backlog Item) → Task, reflecting increasing granularity. Question 6. What does a “Definition of Done” (DoD) ensure across a Scrum team? A) All team members have the same salary
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Question 9. Which traceability link is most useful for impact analysis when a code change is made? A) Test case → Requirement B) Code commit → Work item (User Story) C) Build → Release pipeline D) Epic → Feature Answer: B Explanation: Linking a commit to its originating work item lets teams see which requirements are affected by a code change, supporting impact analysis. Question 10. Which of the following is NOT a typical Agile metric displayed on a dashboard? A) Burn-down chart B) Cumulative flow diagram C) Mean time between failures (MTBF) D) Sprint velocity Answer: C Explanation: MTBF is a reliability metric more common in operations; Agile dashboards focus on progress, flow, and effort metrics. Question 11. Which branching strategy encourages developers to commit directly to the main line frequently? A) GitFlow B) GitHub Flow C) Trunk-Based Development D) Release Branching Answer: C
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Explanation: Trunk-Based Development advocates short-lived feature branches or direct commits to the trunk, enabling continuous integration. Question 12. In GitFlow, which branch is used to prepare a new production release? A) develop B) master C) release/* D) hotfix/* Answer: C Explanation: The release branch is created from develop to stabilize the code, perform final testing, and prepare for production. Question 13. What is the primary benefit of using Git Large File Storage (LFS)? A) Faster merge operations for text files B) Ability to store files larger than 100 MB efficiently by keeping pointers in the repo C) Automatic code formatting D) Enforcing commit message standards Answer: B Explanation: Git LFS stores large binary assets outside the normal repository and replaces them with lightweight pointers, improving performance. Question 14. Which term describes a repository that contains the source for many unrelated projects? A) Monorepo B) Micro-repo
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A) Contribute B) Create branch C) Force push D) Manage permissions Answer: B Explanation: “Create branch” permission specifically controls whether a user can create new branches when branch policies are in place. Question 18. In a YAML pipeline, which keyword defines a reusable set of steps? A) script B) job C) template D) stage Answer: C Explanation: Templates allow you to define a set of steps, jobs, or stages that can be reused across multiple pipelines. Question 19. Which type of build agent is most appropriate for a highly regulated environment requiring isolated tooling? A) Microsoft-hosted agent B) Self-hosted Linux agent C) Self-hosted Windows agent with restricted network access D) Cloud-based container agent Answer: C Explanation: A self-hosted Windows agent can be placed in a controlled network zone, ensuring compliance with regulatory constraints.
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Question 20. What does “multi-stage pipeline” enable in Azure DevOps? A) Running builds on multiple operating systems simultaneously B) Defining separate phases such as build, test, and release within a single YAML file C. Executing pipelines in parallel across different projects D. Automatically scaling agents based on load Answer: B Explanation: Multi-stage pipelines allow you to model the entire CI/CD flow (build, test, release) as distinct stages in one YAML definition. Question 21. Which deployment strategy reduces risk by routing a small percentage of traffic to the new version first? A) Blue/Green B) Rolling C) Canary D) Recreate Answer: C Explanation: Canary deployments expose a limited subset of users to the new release, enabling monitoring before a full rollout. Question 22. In Azure Pipelines, what is the purpose of a “release gate”? A) To pause a release until manual approval is given B) To automatically rollback a failed deployment C) To enforce a schedule for releases D) To run security scans before deployment Answer: A
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Answer: C Explanation: Retaining a limited number of recent successful builds balances storage costs with the need for rollback artifacts. Question 26. Which IaC tool uses a declarative language based on JSON and supports Azure resources natively? A) Terraform B) Bicep C) ARM Templates D) Ansible Answer: C Explanation: Azure Resource Manager (ARM) templates are JSON files that declaratively describe Azure resources. Question 27. In Terraform, what is the purpose of the “state file”? A) To store variable values for runtime B) To keep track of resources created and their current attributes C) To define module dependencies D. To configure provider authentication Answer: B Explanation: The state file records the real-world resources Terraform manages, enabling diff calculations and drift detection. Question 28. Which practice helps prevent “configuration drift” in IaC? A) Manually editing resources in the cloud console B) Running periodic “terraform plan” against live infrastructure and applying any differences C) Disabling version control for IaC files
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D) Using separate IaC files per environment without modules Answer: B Explanation: Regularly planning and reconciling actual infrastructure with the desired state ensures drift is detected and corrected. Question 29. Which container runtime scanning tool integrates with Azure Pipelines to detect vulnerable images? A) SonarQube B) Trivy C) JUnit D) Terraform Answer: B Explanation: Trivy is an open-source scanner that can be invoked in pipelines to identify known CVEs in container images. Question 30. In Kubernetes, what object defines a desired number of pod replicas? A) Service B) Deployment C) ConfigMap D) Ingress Answer: B Explanation: A Deployment specifies the replica count and rollout strategy for a set of pods. Question 31. Which Azure service provides a managed Kubernetes offering? A) Azure Container Instances
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Question 34. Which Azure service allows you to store key-value configuration pairs centrally? A) Azure Blob Storage B) Azure Key Vault C) Azure App Configuration D) Azure Monitor Answer: C Explanation: Azure App Configuration provides a centralized repository for feature flags and key-value settings used by applications. Question 35. Static Application Security Testing (SAST) is typically run at which stage of the pipeline? A) During production monitoring B) In the CI build step before compilation finishes C) After deployment to staging D) During runtime of the application Answer: B Explanation: SAST analyzes source code for vulnerabilities early in CI, before the application is built or executed. Question 36. Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) differs from SAST because it: A) Scans compiled binaries only B) Tests the running application from the outside, simulating attacks C) Requires source code access D) Generates a software bill of materials (SBOM) Answer: B
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Explanation: DAST interacts with a live application, probing for security weaknesses without needing source code. Question 37. A Software Bill of Materials (SBOM) primarily provides: A) License compliance reports only B) A list of all open-source components and their versions used in a build C) Performance benchmarks of the application D) Encryption keys for the application Answer: B Explanation: An SBOM enumerates every component, library, and dependency, enabling vulnerability tracking and license compliance. Question 38. Which tool is commonly used to scan dependencies for known vulnerabilities in a Node.js project? A) ESLint B) npm audit C) JUnit D) Terraform validate Answer: B Explanation: npm audit checks the project’s dependency tree against the npm vulnerability database. Question 39. In Azure Key Vault, what is a “secret” used for? A) Storing SSL certificates only B) Holding arbitrary key-value data such as passwords or API keys C) Managing user identities D) Defining access policies for resources
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B) At the resource group, subscription, or individual resource level C) Only on virtual machines D) Only on Azure AD users Answer: B Explanation: RBAC can be scoped to a subscription, resource group, or specific resource, granting permissions accordingly. Question 43. Which Agile framework emphasizes “team of teams” and minimal hierarchy? A) SAFe B) LeSS C) Scrum of Scrums D) Kanban Answer: B Explanation: Large-Scale Scrum (LeSS) promotes a lean approach with a single product backlog and minimal additional roles beyond Scrum. Question 44. In Scrum, who is responsible for maximizing the value of the product? A) Scrum Master B) Development Team C) Product Owner D. Stakeholders Answer: C Explanation: The Product Owner owns the product backlog and prioritizes items to deliver maximum value.
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Question 45. Which Agile metric is calculated as “total story points completed in a sprint divided by sprint length”? A) Cycle Time B) Lead Time C) Velocity D) Throughput Answer: C Explanation: Velocity measures the amount of work (story points) a team completes per sprint. Question 46. What is the purpose of a “Sprint Goal”? A) To list all tasks that must be completed B) To provide a shared objective that guides the Development Team’s work during the sprint C) To define the budget for the sprint D) To set the sprint length Answer: B Explanation: The Sprint Goal gives the team a clear purpose, aligning efforts toward a common outcome. Question 47. Which Azure DevOps board view is best for visualizing work across multiple teams? A) Taskboard B) Backlog view C) Delivery Plans D) Queries Answer: C
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D) To automatically delete after a month Answer: B Explanation: Protected branches enforce rules that maintain code quality and prevent accidental changes. Question 51. Which Azure DevOps pipeline trigger runs a build automatically when a new tag is pushed? A) CI trigger B) Pull request trigger C) Scheduled trigger D) Tag trigger (via trigger: none and pr: none then tags:) Answer: D Explanation: Tag triggers are configured explicitly in YAML to start a pipeline when a tag matching a pattern is created. Question 52. Which Azure Pipelines task is used to publish test results to the pipeline summary? A) PublishBuildArtifacts B) PublishTestResults C) CopyFiles D) PublishPipelineArtifact Answer: B Explanation: The PublishTestResults task uploads test outcome files (e.g., JUnit, NUnit) for reporting. Question 53. In a Blue/Green deployment, what is the “green” environment? A) The environment that receives traffic after the switch
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B) The staging environment that never receives traffic C) The environment used for load testing only D) The environment that stores logs Answer: A Explanation: The green environment holds the new version; once validated, traffic is switched from blue (current) to green. Question 54. Which technique allows you to roll back a release without redeploying old code? A) Canary deployment B) Feature flag toggling C) Rolling update D) Blue/Green with DNS switch Answer: B Explanation: Turning off a feature flag instantly disables the functionality, effectively rolling back the change. Question 55. What does “immutable infrastructure” refer to? A) Servers that cannot be patched B) Deployments where servers are never modified after creation; updates are performed by replacing instances C) Infrastructure defined in XML files only D) Using only on-prem hardware Answer: B Explanation: Immutable infrastructure treats servers as disposable; any change results in provisioning new instances.
