Download Daylite DEVOPS Practice Exam and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!
Question 1. Which stage of the CI/CD pipeline is primarily responsible for compiling source code and producing binary artifacts? A) Source B) Build C) Test D) Deploy Answer: B Explanation: The Build stage takes the checked‑out source code, runs compilers or build tools, and outputs binaries, containers, or other deployable artifacts. Question 2. In Gitflow, which branch is used for integrating finished features before a release? A) develop B) master C) feature D) hotfix Answer: A Explanation: The develop branch accumulates completed features and serves as the integration branch prior to creating a release branch. Question 3. Which of the following best describes a “canary deployment”? A) Deploying to a separate environment and switching traffic after validation B) Rolling out the new version to a small subset of users before full rollout C) Deploying two versions simultaneously and routing based on user segment D) Reverting to the previous version automatically on failure Answer: B
Explanation: Canary deployments expose a limited percentage of traffic to the new release, allowing real‑world validation before scaling. Question 4. Which Dockerfile instruction creates a new layer that copies files from the host into the image? A) RUN B) FROM C) COPY D) CMD Answer: C Explanation: COPY adds files from the build context to the image and creates a new immutable layer. Question 5. In Kubernetes, what object ensures a specified number of pod replicas are always running? A) Service B) ConfigMap C) Deployment D) PersistentVolume Answer: C Explanation: A Deployment manages ReplicaSets, which maintain the desired replica count for pods. Question 6. Which Terraform command initializes a working directory containing configuration files? A) terraform plan B) terraform init C) terraform apply
B) OWASP Dependency‑Check C) JUnit D) Selenium Answer: B Explanation: OWASP Dependency‑Check inspects project dependencies and matches them against vulnerability databases. Question 10. Which Git command re‑applies commits from one branch onto another, rewriting history? A) git merge B) git cherry-pick C) git rebase D) git revert Answer: C Explanation: git rebase moves a series of commits to a new base, creating a linear history. Question 11. What is the primary purpose of a Service in Kubernetes? A) Store persistent data B) Expose pods to network traffic and provide load balancing C) Schedule pod placement on nodes D) Define container image versions Answer: B Explanation: A Service abstracts a set of pods and provides a stable IP/DNS name and load‑balancing. Question 12. Which of the following CI/CD tools uses a .gitlab-ci.yml file for pipeline definition?
A) Jenkins B) GitHub Actions C) GitLab CI/CD D) Travis CI Answer: C Explanation: GitLab CI/CD reads the .gitlab-ci.yml file located at the repository root to configure jobs and stages. Question 13. In a blue/green deployment, what is the main advantage? A) Zero‑downtime switch between two identical environments B) Automatic rollback on failure without human intervention C) Gradual traffic shift based on user segment D) Reduced need for load balancers Answer: A Explanation: Blue/green maintains two complete environments; traffic is switched instantly, providing near zero downtime. Question 14. Which Ansible module is used to ensure a package is installed on a target host? A) copy B) yum C) user D) lineinfile Answer: B Explanation: The yum (or apt on Debian) module manages packages, ensuring they are present, absent, or at a specific version.
Question 18. In a Terraform configuration, what is the purpose of a backend block? A) Define provider credentials B) Specify where the state file is stored (e.g., S3, Azure Blob) C) Create a new resource group D) Run external scripts after apply Answer: B Explanation: The backend config tells Terraform where to persist the state, enabling collaboration and locking. Question 19. Which of the following is a common cause of pipeline failures that are not code‑related? A) Unit test assertion errors B) Insufficient disk space on the build agent C) Syntax errors in source files D) Null pointer exceptions in application code Answer: B Explanation: Build agents may run out of storage, causing jobs to fail even when the code is correct. Question 20. Which Kubernetes object is used to store non‑confidential configuration data as key‑value pairs? A) Secret B) ConfigMap C) PersistentVolumeClaim D) ServiceAccount Answer: B
Explanation: ConfigMaps hold configuration data that pods can consume as environment variables or files. Question 21. Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of a “Trunk‑Based Development” workflow? A) Long‑lived feature branches B) Frequent commits to the main branch C) Use of feature toggles for incomplete work D) Small, incremental changes Answer: A Explanation: Trunk‑Based Development discourages long‑lived branches; developers commit directly to the trunk (main) often. Question 22. Which tool is primarily used for collecting and visualizing time‑series metrics in a cloud‑native environment? A) ELK Stack B) Prometheus C) Jenkins D) Ansible Answer: B Explanation: Prometheus scrapes metrics, stores them as time‑series data, and integrates with Grafana for dashboards. Question 23. In a CI pipeline, which step should run after unit tests but before integration tests to ensure code quality? A) Static Application Security Testing (SAST) B) Deployment to production
B) Revert the system to the previous stable version after a failure C) Scale the application horizontally D) Perform a blue/green switch Answer: B Explanation: Rollback restores the last known good state when the new release causes issues. Question 27. Which of the following is considered a “non‑functional” test? A) Unit test B) Integration test C) Performance test D) Acceptance test Answer: C Explanation: Performance tests evaluate attributes like speed, scalability, and resource usage, not functional correctness. Question 28. In Kubernetes, which object provides a stable DNS name for a set of pods? A) Ingress B) Service C) Deployment D) StatefulSet Answer: B Explanation: A Service creates a virtual IP and DNS entry that resolves to the backing pod IPs. Question 29. Which of the following is a primary advantage of using “Feature Flags” in continuous delivery?
A) Eliminates the need for automated testing B) Allows toggling functionality at runtime without redeploying code C) Guarantees zero‑downtime deployments D) Provides built‑in load balancing Answer: B Explanation: Feature flags enable turning features on/off dynamically, facilitating safe rollouts and quick rollbacks. Question 30. Which of the following is a typical artifact stored in an artifact repository like Nexus or Artifactory? A) Source code files B) Compiled JAR/WAR files C) Docker container logs D) Kubernetes manifests Answer: B Explanation: Artifact repositories store binary artifacts such as JARs, WARs, or other build outputs for reuse. Question 31. Which Terraform resource type would you use to create a virtual network in Azure? A) azurerm_subnet B) azurerm_virtual_network C) azurerm_network_interface D) azurerm_resource_group Answer: B Explanation: azurerm_virtual_network defines an Azure VNet, the foundational networking resource.
Explanation: docker ps lists active containers, showing IDs, status, and ports. Question 35. In the context of DevSecOps, what does “shifting left” refer to? A) Moving security testing earlier in the development lifecycle B) Deploying applications to the leftmost data center C) Using left‑handed developers for security tasks D) Delaying security reviews until after production Answer: A Explanation: Shifting left means integrating security checks early, such as during code commit or build. Question 36. Which of the following is a best practice for managing secrets in a Kubernetes cluster? A) Storing them in plain‑text ConfigMaps B) Embedding them directly in Docker images C) Using a dedicated secrets management solution like HashiCorp Vault or cloud‑native secret stores D) Hard‑coding them in application source code Answer: C Explanation: Dedicated secret managers provide encryption, access control, and auditability for sensitive data. Question 37. Which of the following describes a “PersistentVolumeClaim” in Kubernetes? A) A request for storage resources by a pod B) A network policy object C) A configuration file for containers D) A type of Service that balances traffic Answer: A
Explanation: A PVC is a pod’s request for storage, which the cluster binds to an appropriate PersistentVolume. Question 38. In a CI pipeline, what is the purpose of a “checkout” step? A) Build the application binary B) Retrieve source code from the version control system C) Deploy the artifact to production D) Run integration tests Answer: B Explanation: The checkout step pulls the latest code from the repository to the build environment. Question 39. Which of the following is a primary advantage of using Terraform modules? A) They allow Terraform to run without a backend B) They enable reuse of common infrastructure patterns across multiple configurations C) They automatically generate documentation for resources D) They replace the need for provider plugins Answer: B Explanation: Modules encapsulate reusable code, promoting DRY (Don’t Repeat Yourself) principles. Question 40. Which type of test is most appropriate for verifying that an API endpoint returns a response within 200 ms under load? A) Unit test B) Functional test C) Performance test D) Security test
C) Number of open pull requests D) Version number of a library Answer: B Explanation: Request latency is one of the four golden signals (latency, traffic, errors, saturation) used to assess service health. Question 44. Which Ansible component allows you to group hosts and assign variables to those groups? A) Playbook B) Role C) Inventory D) Callback plugin Answer: C Explanation: The inventory file defines host groups and associated variables for targeted execution. Question 45. Which of the following is a typical outcome of a “Post‑Incident Review”? A) Immediate deployment of a new feature B) Documentation of root cause, corrective actions, and preventive measures C) Decommissioning of the monitoring system D) Scaling down all services to zero Answer: B Explanation: A post‑incident review (blameless postmortem) captures lessons learned and improvement plans. Question 46. In a cloud‑native environment, which service would you use to store encrypted secrets centrally?
A) Amazon S B) AWS Secrets Manager or Azure Key Vault C) Amazon CloudWatch D) Azure Blob Storage Answer: B Explanation: Secrets managers provide secure storage, rotation, and fine‑grained access control for credentials. Question 47. Which of the following is a primary purpose of a “Service Level Objective” (SLO)? A) Define the exact hardware specifications for a server B) Set a target reliability or performance metric that the service aims to meet C) List all API endpoints of a service D) Describe the deployment pipeline steps Answer: B Explanation: SLOs quantify the acceptable level of service (e.g., 99.9% availability) and guide reliability engineering. Question 48. Which of the following is a common method to achieve “Zero Downtime Deployments” in Kubernetes? A) Deleting the old deployment before creating a new one B) Using a rolling update with readiness probes to ensure new pods are healthy before traffic is shifted C) Scaling the replica count to zero during deployment D) Running the new version on a different cluster without any traffic routing Answer: B Explanation: Readiness probes ensure new pods are ready before they receive traffic, enabling seamless updates.
Question 52. Which of the following is a primary benefit of using “Infrastructure as Code” with version control? A) Reduces the need for monitoring B) Enables rollbacks to previous infrastructure states via Git C) Eliminates the need for cloud providers D) Guarantees zero‑cost deployments Answer: B Explanation: Storing IaC in Git allows you to revert to earlier commits, effectively rolling back infrastructure changes. Question 53. In Terraform, what does the terraform plan command do? A) Applies the configuration to create resources B) Shows the execution plan without making changes C) Destroys all managed resources D) Validates syntax of configuration files only Answer: B Explanation: terraform plan previews the actions Terraform will take, helping reviewers approve changes. Question 54. Which of the following is an example of a “dynamic” security test? A) Static code analysis (SAST) B) Dependency‑check scanning C) Penetration testing against a running application (DAST) D) License compliance check Answer: C
Explanation: Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) evaluates a live application for vulnerabilities. Question 55. Which of the following is a correct statement about “Blue/Green” vs “Canary” deployments? A) Blue/Green switches all traffic at once; Canary gradually shifts a portion of traffic. B) Canary requires two full environments; Blue/Green does not. C) Both require manual rollback steps. D) Blue/Green cannot be automated. Answer: A Explanation: Blue/Green performs an instant traffic cutover, whereas Canary incrementally routes traffic. Question 56. Which of the following monitoring tools is specifically designed for log aggregation and search? A) Prometheus B) Grafana C) ELK Stack (Elasticsearch, Logstash, Kibana) D) Nagios Answer: C Explanation: The ELK Stack ingests, indexes, and visualizes log data for analysis. Question 57. Which of the following Git commands can be used to apply a single commit from another branch onto the current branch without merging the entire branch? A) git merge B) git rebase C) git cherry-pick
