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Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions and Answers Rated A A 3 - day old infant is noted to have a mildly elevated un- conjugated bilirubin level and icterus. Your concern is that this child may have: a. physiologic jaundice b. kernicterus c. glucose- 6 - phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency d. pathologic jaundice Which cell component is capable of cellular autodigestion when it is released during cell injury? a. lysosomes b. ribosomesc. smooth endoplasmi c reticulum d. golgi complex Ans: B- peroxisomes The ditterence between eukaryotes and prokaryotes is that eukaryotes: a. all of these answers are correct b. are smaller in size c. contain organelles d. have no nuclear membrane physiologic jaundice Lysosomes Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction? A) lysosomes B) peroxisomes C) ribosomes D) oxyhydrosomes Contain organelles and complex internal membranes Ans: B- influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production
Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions and Answers Rated A What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria? A) enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthese B) influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production C) edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production D) potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which de- stroys the infrastructure Which of the following is function of Golgi? a. Packages protein for secretion to the outside of the cell b. Produces ATP for cell function c. Contains hydrolytic enzymes d. Is the site of protein synthesis in a cell Ans: A- apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scat- tered singel cells Packages protein for secretion to the outside of the cell Which statement is a description of one of the character- istics of apoptosis? A) apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered singel cells B) apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm C) apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death D) apoptosis results in benign malignancies During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because: A) during cell injury cause by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because: B) the pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot
Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions and Answers Rated A Transcription is best defined as a process by which a. A base pair substitution results in a mutation of the amino acid sequence b. DNA polymerase binds to the promoter site on RNA. c. RNA directs the synthesis of ribosomes for protein syn- thesis d. RNA is synthesized from a DNA template What is the most common cause of Down syndrome? a. paternal translocation b. paternal viral illness c. nondisjunction error d. maternal viral illness A person with XXXY has the genetic disorder called syndrome. a. down b. fragile x c. klinefelter d. turner Cystic fibrosis is caused by an gene. a. x-linked dominant b. autosomal recessive c. autosomal dominant d. x-linked recessive RNA is synthesized from a DNA template nondisjunction error klinefelter autosomal recessive What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, con- vulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hyperna- tremia? A) high sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to
Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions and Answers Rated A Ans: A- high sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink Organelle that contains the code needed for oxidative phosphorylation is: a. mitochondria b. lysosomes c. nucleus d. vacuoles Programmed cell death is an active process of cellular self-destruction. It is also referred to as a. apoptosis b. necrosis c. metastatic calcification d. gangrene The nucleolus is a small dense structure composed mainly of RNA and cellular DNA. What causes the DNA to bind and fold into chromosomes? a. amino acid sequences b. histones c. polymerase d. miRNA Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy is never transmitted from father to son. It is a good example of a. sex-linked recessive disease shrink B) high sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell C) high sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain D) high sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell mitochondria Apoptosis Histones x-linked recessive disease
Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by: A) endogenous pyrogen acting directly on the hypothala- mus B) exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothala- mus C) immune complexes acting indirectly on the hypothala- mus D) cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamus One of the leading causes of death in the intensive care unit is the release of suflcient amounts of endotoxin resulting in endotoxic (septic) shock. The most common cause is: a. cachectin b. fungi c. gram-positive bacteria d. gram-negative bacteria The most common cause of fungal infections in humans are a. staphylococcus b. candida albicans c. gram-negative bacteria d. salmonella Which one of the childhood cancers is associated with the tumor suppressor genes? a. wilms tumor b. acute leukemia c. cerebellar hemagioblastoma d. testicular tumor gram-negative bacteria candida albicans wilms tumor
Leukemia refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin? a. connective tissue b. epithelial cells c. glandular tissue d. blood-forming cells Ans: A- each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent Which of the following cancers originate from connective tissue? a. adenocarcinoma b. multiple myeloma c. basal cell carcinoma d. osteogenic sarcoma Ans: A- infection blood-forming cells Two "hits" are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because: A) each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent B) the first hit stops tissue growth and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth C) tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-onco- genes, requiring two hits to ettect carcinogenesis D) the first hit is insuflcient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation osteogenic sarcoma What is the skin-related health risk induced by some types of chemotherapy? A) infection B) ultraviolet damage C) pain D) erythema
c. Switch ott the telomerase so that cells can divide in- defintely d. Use it as an intracellular signaling chemical to stimulate cell division The major virus involved in cervical cancer is a. human papillomavirus b. human cervical endogenous virus c. herpes simplex virus d. human immunodeficiency virus Ans: C- autonomic hyperreflexia umor suppressor genes encode proteins that in their nor- mal state negatively regulate proliferation. They are also called a. anti-oncogenes b. proto-oncogenes c. mutation of RAS gene d. oncogenes Ans: A- a CNS demyelination, possibly from an immuno- genetic virus Switch on the telomerase so that cells can divide indefin- tely human papillomavirus What term is used to describe the complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is produc- ing paroxysmal hypertension, as well as piloerection ans sweating above the spinal cord lesion? A) craniosacral dysreflexia B) parasympathetic dysreflexia C) autonomic hyperreflexia D) retrograde hyperreflexia anti-oncogenes Multiple sclerosis is best described as: A) a CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus B) inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotrans- mitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder
What is the usual source of this condition in the lung from an obese smoker who had sudden death? a. valvular disease b. left heart failure c. endocartitis d. deep venous thrombosis Ans: D- ingestion of goitrogenes, which inhibits the syn- thesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter The risk of developing coronary artery disease is increased in patients with: (Select 3) a. diabetes mellitus b. hypertension c. obesity d. liver disease e. congenital heart defects f. high alcohol consumption C) the depletion of dopamine in the CNS as a result of a virus D) a degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors deep venous thrombosis Graves disease develops from: A) a viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes over- production of thyroid hormone B) an autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue C) thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones D) ingestion of goitrogenes, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter a. diabetes mellitus b. hypertension c. obesity Pathologic changes associated with Graves disease in- clude:
tations describe a(n): a. acute pericarditis b. pericardial ettusion c. myocardial infarction d. restrictive pericarditis Ans: A- resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues Which predominantly female valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, as well as being associated with connective tissue disease? a. tricuspid valve prolapse b. tricuspid prolapse c. mitral valve prolapse d. aortic stenosis Ans: C- hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise acute pericarditis Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as: A) resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues B) the needs for lispro intead of regular insulin C) an increase in glucagon secretion from (alpa) cells of the pancreas D) the presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy (beta) cells in the pancreas mitral valve prolapse A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symp- toms is: A) hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administra- tion B) the dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime C) hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise D) Somogyi ettect from insulin sensitivity
Infective endocarditis is most often caused by a: a. rickettsiae b. fungus c. bacterium d. virus Ans: A- the Somogyi ettect A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and an elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the fol- lowing heart failures may result from this condition? a. low output failure b. high output failure c. right heart failure d. left heart failure Ans: B- endocervical canal At birth which of the following statements is true? a. systemic resistance falls and pulmonary resistance ris- es b. there is shift in gas exchange from the placenta to the lungs bacterium Hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia, is ob- served in those with: A) the Somogyi ettect B) the dawn phenomenon C) diabetic ketoacidosis D) hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome right heart failure Which structure is lined with columnar epithelial cells? A) perimetrium B) endocervical canal C) myometrium D) vagina there is shift in gas exchange from the placenta to the lungs
c. patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) d. ventricular septal defect (VSD) Ans: A- administration of radioactive cbalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vit- amin B12 deficiency Ans: B- suppression of the bone marrow to produce ade- quate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombo- cytes Congenital heart defects that cause acyanotic congestive heart failure usually involve: a. obstructive lesions b. left to right shunts c. right to left shunts d. mixed lesions Ans: C- erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and se- Which statement best describes a Schilling test? A) administration of radioactive cbalamin and the mea- surement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency B) measurement of anigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia C) measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia D) administration of folate and measurement in two hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency In aplastic anemis (AA), pancytopenia develops as a result of which of the following? A) suppression of erythropoietin to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes B) suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequte amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes C) lack of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) to form suflcient quantitites of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes D) lact of stem cells toform suflcient quantities of leuko- cytes left to right shunts questered in the spleen 16 / 35
Which statement is true regarding warm autoimmune he- motlytic anemia? A) warm autimmune hemolytic anemia occurs primarily in men B) it is self-limiting and rarely produces hemolysis C) erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and se- questered in the spleen D) immunoglobulin M (IgM) coats erythrocytes and binds them to receptors on monocytes Pulmonary edema and pulmonary fibrosis cause hypox- emia by: a. creating alveolar dead space b. impairing alveolocapillary membrane dittusion c. creating a right to left shunt d. decreasing the oxygen in inspired gas Ans: B- is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive Alveolar dead space is a result of: a. atelectasis b. pulmonary edema c. pulmonary emboli d. pneumonia The cause of pulmonary edema in ARDS is the result of increased: a. oncotic pressure increase by fulminant trauma to the impairing alveolocapillary membrane dittusion Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother: A) is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative B) is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive C) has type A blood and the fetus has type O blood D) has type AB blood and the fetus has type O blood pulmonary emboli
a. smoking during pregnancy b. premature birth c. low birth weight d. mother's alcohol consumption during the formation of lung Ans: C- capillary bed collapses and normal blood flow ceases Ans: A- vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption Prinzmetal angina pain is caused by: a. abnormal stretching of the ischemic myocardium b. buildup of lactic acid that irritates myocardial nerve fibers c. coronary embolus d. vasospasm of one or more coronary arteries premature birth What event is a characteristic of the function in Zone I of the lung? A) blood flow through the pulmonary capillary bed in- creases in regular increments B) alveolar pressure is greater than venouse pressure, but not greater than arterial pressure C) the capillary bed collapses and normal blood flow ceas- es D) blood flows through Zone I, but it is ipeded to a certain extent by alveolar pressure What factor associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue) causes an infant to bruise and bleed easily? A) vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption B) bone marrow function depression C) iron, folate, and B12 deficiency anemias D) prescrbed daily warfarin (Coumadin) vasospasm of one or more coronary arteries 3 pathways of the complement system classical, lectin, alternative
is the most common valvular ab- normality attecting nearly 2% of adults older than 65 years of age. a. mitral stenosis b. aortic stenosis c. mitral regurgitation d. aortic regurgitation DNA at the tips of chromosomes, act as caps that protect internal regions of the chromosomes This is classified as a chronic inflammatory disorder of the bronchial mucosa that causes bronchial hyperrespon- siveness, constriction of the airways and variable airflow obstruction that is reversible. a. pneumonia b. asthma c. COPD d. upper respiratory infection aortic stenosis Telomeres asthma A,B,C,D,E Strains of Hepatitis A 45 - yo female is informed that she has hepatitis. She has been traveling recently and was told that the form that she has is self-limiting and is transferred via the fecal-oral route. Which of the following types of hepatitis is she most likely to have contracted? a. hepatitis c b. hepatitis a c. hepatitis b d. hepatitis d A Wilms tumor is also known by the histologic name: a. neuroblastoma b. blastomycosis hepatitis a nephroblastoma
