Docsity
Docsity
Prepare for your exams
Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity

Earn points to download
Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan

Guidelines and tips
Guidelines and tips
Sell on Docsity
Sell on Docsity
Docsity AI
Docsity AI
Log inSign up

Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity

Find documents

Prepare for your exams with the study notes shared by other students like you on Docsity

Search for your university

Find the specific documents for your university's exams

Docsity AINEW

Summarize your documents, ask them questions, convert them into quizzes and concept maps

Explore questions

Clear up your doubts by reading the answers to questions asked by your fellow students

Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan

Share documents
download point icon20 Points

For each uploaded document

Answer questions
download point icon5 Points

For each given answer (max 1 per day)

All the ways to get free points
Get points immediately

Choose a premium plan with all the points you need

Study Opportunities

Choose your next study program

Get in touch with the best universities in the world. Search through thousands of universities and official partners

Community

Ask the community

Ask the community for help and clear up your study doubts

Free resources

Our save-the-student-ebooks!

Download our free guides on studying techniques, anxiety management strategies, and thesis advice from Docsity tutors

Advanced Pathophysiology Practice Questions, Exams of Nursing

Howard Community CollegeNursing

Advanced Pathophysiology Practice Questions

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 11/20/2025

KattyJennifer-1
KattyJennifer-1 🇺🇸

5

(2)

6.1K documents

1 / 33

Toggle sidebar

This page cannot be seen from the preview

Don't miss anything!

bg1
1 / 33
Advanced Pathophysiology Practice Questions / Cardio / Resp Test
Questions and Answers Graded A+
Which statement best differentiates cardiac
afterload from cardiac preload?
1. Cardiac afterload is the volume of blood in the
heart at the end of diastole.
2. Cardiac afterload is the amount of resistance
that the ventricle must overcome.
3. Cardiac afterload is the factor that affects
cardiac output.
4. Cardiac afterload is the amount of blood that
enters the right atrium. - ANSWER -2.
Cardiac afterload is the amount of resistance that
the ventricle must overcome.
1. Cardiac preload is referred to as the volume of
blood in the heart at the end of diastole.
2. Cardiac afterload is referred to as the amount
of resistance that the ventricle must overcome to
pump blood out of the heart.
3. Cardiac preload factors affect cardiac output.
They often occur before contraction.
4. Cardiac preload refers to the volume of blood
that enters the right atrium from the venous
system.
pg 373
How is stage C heart failure different from other
stages of heart failure, according to the American
College of Cardiology/American Heart
Association classification?
1. Clients will have unidentifiable structural or
functional heart abnormalities.
2. Clients may develop structural heart disease
associated with heart failure.
3. Clients may have current or prior symptoms of
heart failure.
4. Clients may have advanced structural heart
disease. - ANSWER -3. Clients may have
current or prior symptoms of heart failure.
1. Clients who have no identifiable structural or
functional abnormalities are classified under
stage A heart failure.
2. Clients who have developed structural heart
disease strongly associated with heart failure are
classified under stage B heart failure.
3. Clients with current or prior symptoms of heart
failure associated with underlying structural heart
disease are classified under stage C heart failure.
4. Clients with advanced structural heart disease
and marked symptoms of heart failure are
classified under stage D heart failure.
pg 395
Heart failure is classified into four different stages
by the American College of Cardiology/American
Heart Association. How is the condition of a client
in stage B different from the condition of clients in
other stages?
1. The client in stage B is supported by a
mechanical circulatory assist device.
2. The client in stage B is undergoing treatment
for prior symptoms of heart failure.
3. The client in stage B has a history of a
previous myocardial infarction.
4. The client with diabetes mellitus has a family
history of cardiomyopathy. - ANSWER -3.
The client in stage B has a history of a previous
myocardial infarction.
1. A client diagnosed with heart failure that is
supported by a mechanical circulatory assist
device and a client who is frequently hospitalized
for heart failure is categorized under stage D
heart failure.
2. A client undergoing treatment for prior
symptoms of heart failure and fatigue caused by
systolic dysfunction is categorized under stage C
heart failure.
3. A client with a previous myocardial infarction
and asymptomatic heart disease is categorized
under stage B heart failure.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus and a family
history of cardiomyopathy is categorized under
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19
pf1a
pf1b
pf1c
pf1d
pf1e
pf1f
pf20
pf21

Partial preview of the text

Download Advanced Pathophysiology Practice Questions and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

Questions and Answers Graded A+

Which statement best differentiates cardiac afterload from cardiac preload?

  1. Cardiac afterload is the volume of blood in the heart at the end of diastole.
  2. Cardiac afterload is the amount of resistance that the ventricle must overcome.
  3. Cardiac afterload is the factor that affects cardiac output.
  4. Cardiac afterload is the amount of blood that enters the right atrium. - ANSWER - 2. Cardiac afterload is the amount of resistance that the ventricle must overcome.
  5. Cardiac preload is referred to as the volume of blood in the heart at the end of diastole.
  6. Cardiac afterload is referred to as the amount of resistance that the ventricle must overcome to pump blood out of the heart.
  7. Cardiac preload factors affect cardiac output. They often occur before contraction.
  8. Cardiac preload refers to the volume of blood that enters the right atrium from the venous system. pg 373 How is stage C heart failure different from other stages of heart failure, according to the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association classification?
  9. Clients will have unidentifiable structural or functional heart abnormalities.
  10. Clients may develop structural heart disease associated with heart failure.
  11. Clients may have current or prior symptoms of heart failure.
  12. Clients may have advanced structural heart disease. - ANSWER - 3. Clients may have current or prior symptoms of heart failure.
  13. Clients who have no identifiable structural or functional abnormalities are classified under stage A heart failure.
    1. Clients who have developed structural heart disease strongly associated with heart failure are classified under stage B heart failure.
    2. Clients with current or prior symptoms of heart failure associated with underlying structural heart disease are classified under stage C heart failure.
    3. Clients with advanced structural heart disease and marked symptoms of heart failure are classified under stage D heart failure. pg 395 Heart failure is classified into four different stages by the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association. How is the condition of a client in stage B different from the condition of clients in other stages?
    4. The client in stage B is supported by a mechanical circulatory assist device.
    5. The client in stage B is undergoing treatment for prior symptoms of heart failure.
    6. The client in stage B has a history of a previous myocardial infarction.
    7. The client with diabetes mellitus has a family history of cardiomyopathy. - ANSWER - 3. The client in stage B has a history of a previous myocardial infarction.
    8. A client diagnosed with heart failure that is supported by a mechanical circulatory assist device and a client who is frequently hospitalized for heart failure is categorized under stage D heart failure.
    9. A client undergoing treatment for prior symptoms of heart failure and fatigue caused by systolic dysfunction is categorized under stage C heart failure.
    10. A client with a previous myocardial infarction and asymptomatic heart disease is categorized under stage B heart failure.
    11. A client with diabetes mellitus and a family history of cardiomyopathy is categorized under

Questions and Answers Graded A+

stage A heart disease. pg 395 A client 50 years of age is diagnosed with Class III (moderate) heart failure. How is Class III heart failure different from other classes of heart failure in the client, according to the New York Association of Classification of Heart Failure?

  1. The client with Class III (moderate) heart failure will feel comfortable with ordinary physical activity.
  2. The client with Class III (moderate) heart failure will feel fatigue and palpitations but only with ordinary activity.
  3. The client with Class III (moderate) heart failure will have symptoms such as fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea while doing less than normal physical activities.
  4. The client with Class III (moderate) heart failure will be unable to carry out physical activities comfortably. - ANSWER - 3. The client with Class III (moderate) heart failure will have symptoms such as fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea while doing less than normal physical activities.
  5. The client with Class II (mild) heart failure will feel comfortable with ordinary physical activity.
  6. The client with Class I (mild) heart failure will not experience fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea while doing ordinary physical activity.
  7. The client with Class III (moderate) heart failure will experience fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea while doing less than ordinary physical activities but may be comfortable at rest.
  8. The client with Class IV (severe) heart failure may not be able to carry out any physical activities comfortably. The client may have symptoms of cardiac insufficiency at rest. pg 395 How does the heart function when a client is diagnosed with heart failure?
    1. The decrease in preload causes high blood volume, filling the ventricle.
    2. The ventricular muscle pumps the excessive blood out.
    3. The stroke volume decreases when the ventricle ejects its blood.
    4. The contractility and stroke volume decreases.
    • ANSWER - 4. The contractility and stroke volume decreases.
    1. An increase in preload causes high blood volume, filling the ventricle.
    2. The weakened ventricular muscle may not have the strength to pump the excessive volume of blood out.
    3. The stroke volume decreases when the weakened ventricle cannot eject the blood.
    4. The increased preload filling can decrease the contractility and stroke volume in a failing heart. pg 374 A registered nurse is teaching nursing students about ischemic cardiomyopathy. Which statement made by one of the student nurses indicates effective learning?
    5. "Ischemic cardiomyopathy is the scarring of the heart muscle caused by coronary artery insufficiency."
    6. "Ischemic cardiomyopathy is the enlargement and hypertrophy of the left or right ventricles."
    7. "Ischemic cardiomyopathy is the disorder that restricts the ventricle's ability to fully expand."
    8. "Ischemic cardiomyopathy is a genetic predisposition for the muscular enlargement of the interventricular septal wall." - ANSWER - 1. "Ischemic cardiomyopathy is the scarring of the heart muscle caused by coronary artery insufficiency."

Questions and Answers Graded A+

  1. Acute heart failure is often caused by substantial ventricular muscle injury.
  2. Acute heart failure is a sudden severe shock that is referred to as cardiogenic shock. pg 383 How is systolic dysfunction different from diastolic dysfunction?
  3. In systolic dysfunction, the ventricle has difficulty ejecting blood out of the chamber.
  4. In systolic dysfunction, the ventricle has difficulty relaxing and is unable to expand fully.
  5. In systolic dysfunction, the ventricle pumps out insufficient blood volume.
  6. In systolic dysfunction, the ventricle has low blood volume. - ANSWER - 1. In systolic dysfunction, the ventricle has difficulty ejecting blood out of the chamber.
  7. In systolic dysfunction, the weakened ventricle has difficulty ejecting blood out of the chamber.
  8. In diastolic dysfunction, the ventricle has difficulty relaxing and is unable to expand fully.
  9. In diastolic dysfunction, the ventricle pumps out insufficient blood volume because the ventricle cannot fill with adequate blood.
  10. In diastolic dysfunction, there is low blood volume in the ventricle. Therefore, the stroke volume and cardiac output are diminished. pg 383 How is high-output failure different from low- output failure?
  11. In high-output failure, the heart can weaken and the ventricle can fail.
  12. In high-output failure, the heart is unable to fill with adequate amounts of blood.
  13. In high-output failure, there is a lack of delivery of adequate oxygen to the tissues.
    1. In high-output failure, there is a lack of sufficient blood to recirculate through the heart. - ANSWER - 1. In high-output failure, the heart can weaken and the ventricle can fail.
    2. In high-output failure, the heart may weaken and the ventricle can fail.
    3. In low-output failure, the heart is unable to fill with adequate amounts of blood to pump to the tissues.
    4. In low-output failure, insufficient blood volume is pumped into circulation, causing inadequate delivery of oxygen to the tissues.
    5. In low-output failure, there is a lack of sufficient blood to recirculate through the heart and into the pulmonary and systemic arterial circulation, with less than adequate venous return. pg 383 A registered nurse is teaching nursing students about the normal level for central venous pressure. Which statement made by one of the student nurses indicates effective learning?
    6. "The normal range for central venous pressure is 4 to 13 mm Hg."
    7. "The normal range for central venous pressure is 60 to 80 mm Hg."
    8. "The normal range for central venous pressure is 12 to 15 mm Hg."
    9. "The normal range for central venous pressure is 1 to 5 mm Hg." - ANSWER - 4. "The normal range for central venous pressure is 1 to 5 mm Hg."
    10. The normal range for pulmonary artery pressure is 4 to 13 mm Hg.
    11. The normal range for the systemic arterial blood pressure is 60 to 80 mm Hg.
    12. The normal range for pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is 12 to 15 mm Hg.
    13. The normal range for central venous pressure is 1 to 5 mm Hg.

Questions and Answers Graded A+

pg 394 Which is a potent vasodilator produced by vascular endothelial cells?

  1. Nitric oxide
  2. Endothelin
  3. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha
  4. None of the above - ANSWER - 1. Nitric oxide
  5. Nitric oxide is a potent vasodilator produced by vascular endothelial cells.
  6. Endothelin is a peptide secreted by the heart's endothelium and vasculature during heart failure.
  7. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha is an inflammatory cytokine that stimulates hypertrophy, fibrotic changes, and cell death, or apoptosis of the myocardium.
  8. Nitric oxide is a potent vasodilator produced by vascular endothelial cells. Therefore, the answer option "none of the above" is incorrect. pg 378 A registered nurse is teaching nursing students about the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). Which statement made by the nursing student indicates effective learning?
  9. "RAAS is a mechanism that regulates arterial blood pressure."
  10. "RAAS is a mechanism that decreases blood pressure."
  11. "RAAS is a mechanism that increases blood volume in response to increased renal perfusion."
  12. "RAAS is a mechanism with detrimental effects that decrease workload for the left ventricle." - ANSWER - 1. "RAAS is a mechanism that regulates arterial blood pressure."
    1. RAAS is a major mechanism in the regulation of arterial blood pressure.
    2. RAAS is a compensatory mechanism that raises blood pressure.
    3. RAAS is a compensatory mechanism that increases blood volume in response to decreased renal perfusion.
    4. RAAS is a vital compensatory mechanism and major regulator of blood pressure, which has detrimental effects. The effects of RAAS increase workload for the left ventricle. pg 376 What is the term for 'rapid irregular rhythms' of the ventricle?
    5. Tachydysrhythmias
    6. Bradydysrhythmias
    7. Atrial dysrhythmias
    8. None of the above - ANSWER - 1. Tachydysrhythmias
    9. Tachydysrhythmias are the rapid irregular rhythms of the ventricle that reduce the time available for ventricular filling; this can precipitate heart failure.
    10. Bradydysrhythmias are referred to as the slow, irregular rhythms of the ventricle that can slow the heart rate.
    11. Atrial dysrhythmias are referred to as the abnormality that occurs in the atrium that can slow the heart rate.
    12. Tachydysrhythmias are the rapid irregular rhythms of the ventricle. Therefore, the answer option "none of the above" is incorrect. pg 380 A 78-year-old man presents to his physician for evaluation of edema. He reports a 3-month history of peripheral edema. Which edema may

Questions and Answers Graded A+

of blood that the heart pumps out of the left ventricle."

  1. Cardiac output is the amount of blood that the heart pumps out of the left ventricle each minute.
  2. Cardiac output is diminished in heart failure because the left ventricle is weakened and cannot adequately pump blood out of the chamber.
  3. Cardiac output varies by body size. A hemodynamic measurement termed cardiac index can be calculated to give a more accurate assessment of each individual's cardiac output.
  4. Adrenergic stimulation raises heart rate and cholinergic stimulation slows heart rate. pg 372 A nurse is caring for four clients with heart disease in the intensive care unit. One of the clients has been diagnosed with decreased calcium availability. Client 1: Dobutamine Client 2: Digoxin Client 3: Milrinone Client 4: Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors Which client is administered a drug to increase calcium availability?
  5. Client 1
  6. Client 2
  7. Client 3
  8. Client 4 - ANSWER - 3. Client 3: Milrinone
  9. Client 1 is administered dobutamine, which is a synthetic catecholamine that acts on the heart's beta-1 receptors.
  10. Client 2 is administered digoxin, which is one of the most commonly used inotropic drugs, since it increases the contractile force of the heart muscle.
    1. Client 3 is administered milrinone, which is a drug that increases the calcium availability to the cardiac myocytes and increases the muscle's overall force of contraction.
    2. Client 4 is administered angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors that reduce retention of sodium in the blood stream in order to lower blood volume and blood pressure to ease the heart's work. pg 397 At which intercostal space is auscultation of the pulmonic valve best heard?
    3. The second intercostal space in the left sternal border
    4. The second intercostal space in the right sternal border
    5. The fifth intercostal space in the midclavicular line
    6. The fourth intercostal space in the left sternal border - ANSWER - 1. The second intercostal space in the left sternal border
    7. The pulmonic valve is heard best at the second intercostal space in the left sternal border.
    8. The aortic valve is heard best at the second intercostal space in the right sternal border.
    9. The mitral valve is heard best at the fifth intercostal space in the midclavicular line.
    10. The tricuspid valve is heard best at the fourth intercostal space in the left sternal border. pg 405 A registered nurse is teaching a group of nursing students the preventive measures to be adopted for thromboemboli. Which response by a student nurse indicates effective learning?

Questions and Answers Graded A+

  1. "Thromboemboli is prevented through the use of antibiotics."
  2. "Thromboemboli is prevented through the use of diuretics."
  3. "Thromboemboli is prevented through the use of anticoagulants."
  4. "Thromboemboli is prevented through the use of beta-adrenergic blockers." - ANSWER -
  5. "Thromboemboli is prevented through the use of anticoagulants."
  6. Antibiotics are used for the prophylactic treatment in clients who have deformed or artificial valves.
  7. Diuretics are used to treat heart failure that is associated with valve disorders.
  8. Thromboemboli are prevented with the use of anticoagulants.
  9. Beta-adrenergic blockers are used to treat tachydysrhythmias. pg 413 How should a nurse document a client's heart murmur that begins just before S2 and ends at S2?
  10. Late systolic
  11. Early systolic
  12. Late diastolic
  13. Early diastolic - ANSWER - 1. Late systolic
  14. A heart murmur that begins just before S2 and ends at S2 is termed as a late systolic murmur.
  15. A heart murmur that begins after S1 and ends before S2 is termed as an early systolic murmur.
  16. A heart murmur that begins after S2 and continues up to S1 is termed as a late diastolic murmur.
  17. A heart murmur that begins at S2 and fades before S1 is termed as an early diastolic murmur. pg 408 A client is evaluated for a heart murmur in which the murmur is found to be loud. How should the heart murmur be rated?
    1. 1/
    2. 3/
    3. 2/
    4. 6/6 - ANSWER - 4. 6/
    5. A rating of 1/6 indicates a faint heart murmur.
    6. A rating of 2/6 indicates a faint heart murmur.
    7. A rating of 3/6 indicates a medium-loud heart murmur.
    8. A rating of 6/6 indicates a loud heart murmur. pg 408 A left ventricular impulse is seen through the chest wall of a client. On palpation, a diastolic thrill is palpated along the left sternal border and a systolic thrill is palpable in the jugular notch. To which pathological condition could these symptoms be attributed?
    9. Aortic valve insufficiency
    10. Mitral valve insufficiency
    11. Tricuspid valve stenosis
    12. Mitral valve prolapse - ANSWER - 1. Aortic valve insufficiency
    13. Aortic valve insufficiency is characterized by a palpable, systolic thrill in the jugular notch and a diastolic thrill in the left sternal border. A left ventricular impulse is often seen through the chest wall.
    14. Mitral valve insufficiency is characterized by a holosystolic murmur at the fifth intercostal space.
    15. Tricuspid valve stenosis is characterized by an opening snap after S2 and a diastolic murmur over the lower left sternal border.
    16. Mitral valve prolapse is characterized by a mid-

Questions and Answers Graded A+

  1. Myocardial ischemia
  2. Left ventricular ischemia
  3. Right ventricular failure - ANSWER - 1. Ischemic stroke
  4. An ischemic stroke is highly suspected in a client who has mitral valve stenosis and presents with unilateral weakness, tachycardia, and an irregular pulse.
  5. Myocardial ischemia is more common in clients who have mitral valve insufficiency.
  6. Left ventricular ischemia is a common result of aortic valve stenosis.
  7. Right ventricular failure occurs in clients who have aortic valve insufficiency. pg 411 A nurse is auscultating a client's heart sounds and notices a murmur. What would differentiate a heart murmur that is caused by mitral valve stenosis than one that is caused by other mitral valve disorders?
  8. Mid-systolic murmur
  9. Opening snaps following a diastolic murmur
  10. Holosystolic murmur
  11. Late systolic murmur - ANSWER - 2. Opening snaps following a diastolic murmur
  12. A mid-systolic murmur is seen in mitral valve prolapse.
  13. An opening snap followed by a diastolic murmur is heard in mitral valve stenosis.
  14. A holosystolic murmur is heard in mitral valve insufficiency.
  15. A late systolic murmur is heard in mitral valve prolapse. pg 411 A client presents with paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) and chest pain. On auscultation, the client is found to have a holosystolic murmur at the fifth intercostal space in the left sternal border. Which condition would warrant the client to undergo an echocardiogram for validation of the disease?
    1. Aortic valve insufficiency
    2. Mitral valve insufficiency
    3. Tricuspid valve stenosis
    4. Mitral valve prolapse - ANSWER - 2. Mitral valve insufficiency
    5. Aortic valve stenosis is characterized by a diastolic murmur at the third intercostal space.
    6. Mitral valve insufficiency is characterized by a holosystolic murmur at fifth intercostal space
    7. Tricuspid valve stenosis is characterized by an opening snap after an S2 diastolic murmur over the lower left sternal border.
    8. A mitral valve prolapse is characterized by a mid-systolic or late systolic murmur after a mid- systolic click at the lower left sternal border. pg 419 evaluate an intracardiac lesion. Which method should the nurse choose?
    9. Electrocardiogram
    10. Coronary angiography
    11. Echocardiography
    12. Chest x-ray - ANSWER - 3. Echocardiography
    13. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is used to monitor the electrical activity of the heart.
    14. A coronary angiography is used to determine the health of the coronary arteries.
    15. An echocardiography is the gold standard for the diagnosis of valvular heart disease.
    16. A chest x-ray is used to diagnose the dilation of the heart. pg 419

Questions and Answers Graded A+

How does Ebstein's anomaly lead to a small right ventricular chamber?

  1. The mitral valve leaflets push into the right ventricle, creating a small right ventricular chamber.
  2. A displaced tricuspid valve lowers into the right ventricle, creating a small right ventricular chamber.
  3. The pulmonic valve pushes into the right ventricle, creating a small right ventricular chamber.
  4. The aortic valve pushes into the right ventricle, creating a small right ventricular chamber. - ANSWER - 2. A displaced tricuspid valve lowers into the right ventricle, creating a small right ventricular chamber.
  5. The mitral valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle and has no relation to the right ventricle.
  6. The tricuspid valve's leaflets are displaced lower into the right ventricle in clients who have Ebstein's anomaly. This results in the creation of a small right ventricular chamber.
  7. The pulmonic valve pushes blood from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery, so it cannot create a chamber in the right ventricle even if it is displaced.
  8. The aortic valve is located between the left ventricle and aorta; therefore, it has no relation to right ventricle. pg 418 A client presents with dyspnea, exertional dyspnea, and exertional syncope. An echocardiogram shows a diminished left ventricular ejection fraction. What would be the reason for prescribing dobutamine to the client?
  9. To enhance arterial circulation
    1. To reduce the risk of coagulation
    2. To augment the cardiac output
    3. To diminish the effects of ventricular failure - ANSWER - 2. To reduce the risk of coagulation
    4. Vasodilators are used to enhance arterial circulation.
    5. Anticoagulants are used to reduce the risk of coagulation.
    6. Dobutamine is used to augment the cardiac output.
    7. Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are used to diminish the effects of ventricular failure. pg 420 While evaluating a client for a heart murmur, a nurse auscultates the murmur with the bell of a stethoscope and not with the diaphragm of a stethoscope. Which type of heart murmur is this considered?
    8. A high-pitched murmur.
    9. A low-pitched murmur.
    10. A crescendo murmur.
    11. A decrescendo murmur. - ANSWER - 2. A low-pitched murmur.
    12. A high-pitched heart murmur is heard best with the diaphragm of a stethoscope.
    13. A low-pitched heart murmur is heard best with the bell of a stethoscope.
    14. A crescendo heart murmur is louder in intensity over time and describes the shape of the murmur.
    15. A decrescendo heart murmur becomes fainter in intensity over time and describes the shape of the murmur. pg 409

Questions and Answers Graded A+

  1. Aortic valve replacement
  2. Pacemaker insertion
  3. Defibrillator therapy
  4. Percutaneous aortic balloon valvuloplasty - ANSWER - 4. Percutaneous aortic balloon valvuloplasty
  5. Aortic valve replacement is a surgical procedure and is not recommended in clients who are not candidates for surgery.
  6. Pacemaker insertion is considered in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
  7. Defibrillator therapy is considered in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
  8. Percutaneous aortic balloon valvuloplasty is an option for treating aortic valve stenosis in clients who are not candidates for surgery and have not responded to diuretic therapy. pg 415 A registered nurse is teaching a nursing student about aortic valve insufficiency. Which statement made by the student nurse indicates effective learning?
  9. "It is a high-pitched, blowing, diastolic decrescendo murmur."
  10. "It is a harsh, systolic, crescendo-decrescendo murmur."
  11. "It is a high-pitched, decrescendo, blowing murmur."
  12. "It is a blowing, holosystolic murmur." - ANSWER - 1. "It is a high-pitched, blowing, diastolic decrescendo murmur."
  13. A high-pitched, blowing, diastolic, decrescendo murmur is a characteristic of aortic valve insufficiency.
  14. Pulmonic valve stenosis is characterized by a harsh, systolic, crescendo-decrescendo murmur.
  15. A high-pitched, decrescendo, blowing murmur is a characteristic of pulmonic valve insufficiency.
    1. A blowing, holosystolic murmur is a characteristic of tricuspid valve insufficiency. pg 417 A client is found to have a disproportionately enlarged interventricular septum with an eccentrically hypertrophied left ventricle. Which condition would be indicated in the client?
    2. Aortic valve stenosis
    3. Mitral valve insufficiency
    4. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
    5. Mitral valve prolapse - ANSWER - 3. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
    6. Aortic valve stenosis is characterized by a narrowing of the aortic valve.
    7. Mitral valve insufficiency is characterized by incompetent mitral valves that cannot close..
    8. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by an eccentrically hypertrophied left ventricle and a disproportionately enlarged interventricular septum..
    9. Mitral valve prolapse is characterized by floppy mitral valve leaflets. pg 420 Which unique respiratory infection is caused by a resilient bacterial organism that can remain dormant in the body?
    10. Dyspnea
    11. Tuberculosis(TB)
    12. Pulmonary aspiration
    13. Cough - ANSWER - 2. Tuberculosis(TB)
    14. Dyspnea is a sensation in which a person feels shortness of breath.
    15. TB is a unique respiratory infection caused by a resilient bacterial organism that can remain dormant in the body as latent TB.

Questions and Answers Graded A+

  1. Pulmonary aspiration occurs when materials from the oropharynx enter the lower respiratory tract.
  2. Cough is an involuntary response to mechanical or chemical stimulation of the bronchial tree. pg 452 Which is the process of coughing up sputum?
  3. Expectoration
  4. Hemoptysis
  5. Atelectasis
  6. Hypoxia - ANSWER - 1. Expectoration
  7. Expectoration is the process of coughing up sputum.
  8. Hemoptysis refers to the production of sputum that contains blood.
  9. Atelectasis is the collapse of a small number of alveoli, resulting in reduced gas exchange in the body.
  10. Hypoxia occurs when there are insufficient oxygen levels in the blood to meet the needs of the tissue. pg 441 Which test involves the continuous monitoring of the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin?
  11. Bronchoscopy
  12. Computed tomography
  13. Pulse oximetry
  14. Arterial blood gases - ANSWER - 3. Pulse oximetry
  15. Bronchoscopy helps direct visualization of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi.
  16. A computed tomography scan shows a more specific picture of the respiratory system, identifying different pathological conditions, such as lung abscesses and tumors.
    1. Pulse oximetry can continuously monitor the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin.
    2. Arterial blood gases provide information about the exchange of gases. pg 445 Which condition results in lung tissue filling up with fluid or pus, inflammatory cells, and fibrin?
    3. Pneumonia
    4. Acute bronchitis
    5. Tracheitis
    6. Acute rhinitis - ANSWER - 1. Pneumonia
    7. Pneumonia is the inflammation of the lung tissues, leading to the alveolar air spaces filling with purulent, inflammatory cells, and fibrin.
    8. Acute bronchitis is an inflammation of the bronchi and the bronchioles caused by either bacterial or viral infection.
    9. Tracheitis is infection and inflammation of the trachea, commonly caused by bacteria.
    10. Acute rhinitis results in the inflammation and irritation of the mucous membranes of the nose. pg 441 Which bacterium is responsible for pneumonia in a client with HIV infection?
    11. Pneumocystis carinii
    12. Pneumocystis jiroveci
    13. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    14. Mycoplasma pneumoniae - ANSWER - 2. Pneumocystis jiroveci
    15. Pneumocystis carinii is the former name for the yeast-like fungal organism called Pneumocystis carinii.
    16. Pneumocystis jiroveci is responsible for causing pneumonia.

Questions and Answers Graded A+

administer to the client?

  1. Bronchodilator and antibiotics
  2. Intravenous (IV) fluids and humidified oxygen
  3. Antibiotics and surgical treatment
  4. Adequate hydration and nutrition - ANSWER - 1. Bronchodilator and antibiotics
  5. These symptoms are related to acute bronchitis. Therefore, the primary health-care provider would administer a bronchodilator and antibiotics.
  6. IV fluids and humidified oxygen are the prescribed treatments for epiglottitis.
  7. Antibiotics and surgical treatment are used to treat lung abscess.
  8. Adequate hydration and nutrition are prescribed to treat a client diagnosed with tuberculosis. pg 448 The nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about acute sinusitis. Which statement by the student indicates proper learning about sinusitis?
  9. "Sinusitis can be divided into acute and subacute sinusitis."
  10. "Chronic sinusitis involves inflammation of the sinuses, which is cured within a week."
  11. "Virus, bacteria, or both organism types may be responsible for acute sinusitis."
  12. "Mucolytic agents are used to treat the infection." - ANSWER - 3. "Virus, bacteria, or both organism types may be responsible for acute sinusitis."
  13. This statement is incorrect because sinusitis can be divided into three categories: acute, subacute, or chronic sinusitis.
  14. This statement is also incorrect because chronic sinusitis involves an inflammation of the sinuses that persists for more than 12 weeks.
    1. This statement is correct because it shows that the nursing student has appropriate learning.
    2. Mucolytic agents are administered to decrease secretion, but they do not treat the infection. pg 446 - 447 While going through one of the client prescriptions, the nurse finds that the primary health-care provider has prescribed antihistamines and antipyretics. The nurse observes that a corticosteroid anti-inflammatory nasal spray has also been advised in the prescription. What condition can the nurse infer from the prescription?
    3. The prescription provides medication for pharyngitis.
    4. The prescription provides medication for sinusitis.
    5. The prescription provides medication for rhinitis.
    6. The prescription provides medication for tonsillitis. - ANSWER - 3. The prescription provides medication for rhinitis.
    7. The prescription does not provide medication for pharyngitis. The prescriptions for pharyngitis may recommend penicillin, erythromycin, and cephalosporin. Treatments also include symptomatic relief, antipyretics and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
    8. The prescription does not provide medications for sinusitis, since the prescription for sinusitis may include decongestants, antihistamines, saline sprays, and heated mists.
    9. The prescription provides medication for rhinitis since it provides symptomatic treatment involving antihistamines and antipyretics, combined with a corticosteroid anti-inflammatory nasal spray meant for allergic rhinitis.
    10. The prescription does not provide medication for tonsillitis because tonsillitis is treated with antibiotics when group A beta-hemolytic

Questions and Answers Graded A+

streptococcus (GABHS) is noted. The prescription may comprise tonsillectomy in the occurrence of infections or severe tissue hypertrophy. pg 446 On assessing the physical findings of a client, the nurse discovers that the client has red, swollen, inflamed pharynx and tonsils. What condition can the nurse suspect from the findings?

  1. Laryngitis
  2. Acute bronchitis
  3. Lung abscess
  4. Epiglottitis - ANSWER - 4. Epiglottitis
  5. Laryngitis is a condition in which the client has hoarseness or a complete loss of voice, along with an irritating, high-pitched, brassy cough.
  6. Bronchitis involves fever combined with cough. Rhonchi can also be heard over the lungs.
  7. A lung abscess is a condition that includes fever and a copious amount of foul-smelling sputum. Decreased breath sound can be heard in the area of the abscess.
  8. Epiglottitis is a condition where the client has red, swollen, inflamed pharynx and tonsils. A swollen epiglottis can also be observed. pg 447 While going through the physical assessment finding of a particular client, the primary health- care provider observes facial pain in the client. The client complains that the pain gets worse when he or she leans forward. What inference can the primary health-care provider draw from these findings?
  9. Sinusitis
  10. Pharyngitis
  11. Epiglottitis
    1. Tonsillitis - ANSWER - 1. Sinusitis
    2. The physical assessment findings of clients with sinusitis show facial pain or pressure over the sinus area, which worsens when leaning forward or sitting in the head-down position.
    3. A client diagnosed with pharyngitis has red, swollen pharyngeal membrane and tonsils. In addition, the lymphoid follicles become swollen and are covered with white exudates.
    4. A client diagnosed with epiglottitis has red, swollen, inflamed pharynx and tonsils, along with a swollen epiglottis.
    5. A client diagnosed with tonsillitis has a red, inflamed pharynx, tonsillar tissues, edematous, and erythematous, as well as a white exudate over the tonsillar tissue. pg 446 - 447 In the prescription of a client, the nurse observes treatment involving decongestants, antihistamines, saline sprays, and heated mists. Which condition, according to the nurse, can be treated by these types of medications?
    6. Pharyngitis
    7. Sinusitis
    8. Tracheitis
    9. Acute bronchitis - ANSWER - 2. Sinusitis
    10. Pharyngitis may be treated with antibiotics such as penicillin, erythromycin, antipyretics, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS).
    11. The prescription for sinusitis involves decongestants, antihistamines, saline sprays, and heated mists.
    12. A prescription for tracheitis may suggest that the client rest the voice, apply bronchodilators, and take antibiotics.
    13. A prescription for bronchitis comprises expectorants, cough suppressants, antibiotics, bronchodilator, and antipyretics.

Questions and Answers Graded A+

pneumonia.

  1. Statement C is incorrect because intravenous drug use is a risk factor specifically for staphylococcal lung abscesses.
  2. Statement D is correct because staphylococcal endocarditis usually occurs initially, followed by the development of septic emboli. pg 451 A client is diagnosed with allergic rhinitis. Which medication should the primary health-care provider prescribe as a treatment?
  3. Penicillin
  4. Corticosteroid anti-inflammatory nasal spray
  5. Intravenous fluids
  6. Acetaminophen - ANSWER - 2. Corticosteroid anti-inflammatory nasal spray
  7. Penicillin is an antibiotic used for pharyngitis.
  8. Corticosteroid anti-inflammatory nasal spray is used for allergic rhinitis.
  9. Intravenous fluids are used for the treatment of epiglottitis.
  10. Acetaminophen is used for the treatment of laryngitis, tracheitis, acute bronchitis, and pneumonia. pg 446 A client admitted with a lung abscess has developed an area of pulmonary tissue necrosis. What is the most appropriate treatment to manage this complication?
  11. Surgical treatment
  12. Adequate hydration and nutrition
  13. Humidified oxygen
  14. Intravenous fluids - ANSWER - 1. Surgical treatment
    1. A client diagnosed with lung abscess or a localized area of infection and purulent inflammation that has resulted in tissue necrosis should be treated with surgical intervention.
    2. Adequate hydration and nutrition are essential for the treatment for tuberculosis (TB).
    3. Humidified oxygen is used for the treatment of pneumonia.
    4. Intravenous fluids are required for a client with epiglottitis. pg 451 The primary health-care provider orders decongestants for a client. Which condition may be present?
    5. Tonsillitis
    6. Rhinitis
    7. Pharyngitis
    8. Sinusitis - ANSWER - 4. Sinusitis
    9. Tonsillitis is not treated by decongestants. Antibiotics and tonsillectomy help in treating tonsillitis.
    10. A condition like rhinitis is treated with acetaminophen, antihistamines, and antipyretics, to name a few medications, but not decongestants.
    11. Pharyngitis is treated with antibiotics, as well as antipyretics and nonsteroidal anti- inflammatory drugs, but not decongestants.
    12. Sinusitis is treated with decongestants. pg 446 - 447 While diagnosing a client, the primary health-care provider finds the cervical lymph nodes to be extremely tender. Which condition does the primary health-care provider write in the client's prescription?
    13. Lung abscess

Questions and Answers Graded A+

  1. Myringitis
  2. Acute pharyngitis
  3. Tracheitis - ANSWER - 3. Acute pharyngitis
  4. The physical assessment finding of lung abscess involves copious amounts of foul- smelling sputum.
  5. Otitis media or myringitis is inflammation of the tympanic membranes.
  6. The physical assessment of acute pharyngitis involves cervical lymph nodes.
  7. The physical assessment of tracheitis involves hoarseness or complete loss of voice. pg 446 The nursing instructor is teaching lung anatomy to a group of students. Which statement relates appropriately to the students' learning of lung anatomy?
  8. "The lung receives air from the lower respiratory tract."
  9. "There are three lobes in the lung tissue on the left."
  10. "There are three lobes in the lung tissue on the right."
  11. "The two main bronchi and bronchioles are part of the lungs." - ANSWER - 3. "There are three lobes in the lung tissue on the right."
  12. The first statement is incorrect because the lung receives air from the upper respiratory tract.
  13. The second statement is incorrect because there are two lobes in the lung tissue on the left, specifically the upper lobes and the lower lobes.
  14. The third statement is correct because there are three lobes: the upper, middle, and lower lobes.
  15. The fourth statement is incorrect because the two main bronchi and bronchioles form part of the upper respiratory tract. pg 437 Which specialized cellular mechanism comprises ciliated pseudocolumnar epithelial cells and goblet cells?
    1. Mucociliary apparatus
    2. Alveoli
    3. Oxyhemoglobin
    4. Erythropoietin - ANSWER - 1. Mucociliary apparatus
    5. Mucociliary apparatus is a specialized cellular mechanism that comprises the ciliated pseudo- columnar epithelial cells and goblet cells.
    6. Alveoli are thin-walled, balloon-like structures surrounded by pulmonary capillaries.
    7. Oxyhemoglobin is the combination of oxygen with the heme portion of hemoglobin.
    8. Erythropoietin stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells that can carry more oxygen to the tissues. pg 438 Which condition is also known as hypoventilation syndrome?
    9. OSA, Obstructive Sleep Apnea
    10. Bronchiectasis
    11. Pneumocystis jiroveci infection
    12. Pulmonary hypertension - ANSWER - 1. OSA, Obstructive Sleep Apnea
    13. OSA, also called hypoventilation syndrome, is characterized by intermittent cessation of airflow from the nose and mouth during sleep.
    14. Bronchiectasis is considered to be an uncommon disease. The disease is an outcome of untreated infections that lead to chronic inflammation and dilatation of the bronchi.
    15. A Pneumocystis jiroveci infection is associated with emphysematous changes in the lungs in an