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AORN Periop 101 Actual Exam
Questions and Correct Answers
Rated A+
- Which professionals are NOT qualified to provide anesthesia care to the patient? A. anesthesiologists B. CRNA C. Perioperative nurses D. The operating surgeon Answer> D. operating surgeon
- identify the factors you would take into consideration before determining what anesthetic to use for a particular patient a. age of the patient b. sex c. physiological status of the patient d. surgeon's preference Answer> A C D
- Protein Receptor Theory
2 / 31 Answer> the response to anesthesia depends on the occupa- tion of a critical number of receptor sites
- Meyer-Overton Theory Answer> the potency of the anesthetic depends upon its lipid solubility
- Endogenous Endorphins Theory Answer> anesthetics work through opiate-like sub- stances that suppress various pain pathways
- a precise way of looking at general anesthesia is to divide it into 3 phases- Answer> Phase 1 induction phase 2 maintenance phase 3 emergence
- judy is a patient about to undergo sugery. she was given anesthesia a few minuates ago and is beginning to feel its effects. what stage and phase of anesthesia is she in? Answer> Stage 1 induction Phase 1 initial administration
- Stages of Anesthesia
4 / 31 episode Answer> sudden rise in temperature increase in end-tidal CO increased oxygen demand
- protocol for treatment of MH Answer> discontinue all triggering agents continue with safe agents hyperventilate with % oxygen switch to a new anesthesia machine give dantrolene until signs stabilize cool patient with iced saline solutions
- patient-related factors that can contribute to hypothermia include Answer> low birth weight infants congestive heart failure
- in what ways should the perioperative nurse assist with general anesthesia innduction? Answer> apply cricoid pressure if needed during intubation remain at the patient's side to offer reassurance and promote safety
- when a bier block is used during a procedure, the perioperative nurse should
5 / 31 Answer> check the calibration of the tourniquet before applying it monitor the length of time the tourniquet is inflated
- which drug is used to reverse valium and midazolam? Answer> flumazenil
- which method is used to prevent aspiration during endotracheal intuba- tion? Answer> apply cricoid pressure -- occludes esophagus and prevents aspiration
- when do spinal headaches usually occur? Answer> postoperatively
- intravenous regional anesthesia (bier block), the tourniquet should be deflated to prevent which of the following from entering the circulation? Answer> bolus of anesthesia
- what i the most consistent indicator of MH during surgical intervention Answer> - unexplained increase in end-tidal CO2 (tachycardia, hyperkalemia, lactic acidosis)
- which is NOT a protocol for treatment during an MH crisis Answer> administer serum potassium
- administration of anesthesia requires specialized equipment to provide a safe environment for the patient. which of the following data may be monitor-
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- john dewey definition Answer> reflective thinking; active, persistent, and careful consid- eration of a belief or suppose form of knowledge in the light of the grounds which support it and the further conclusions to which it tends
- Watson-Glaser Critical Thinking Appraisal Answer> critical thinking as an attitude of being disposed to consider the problems and subjects of one's experience in a thoughtful way (knowledge of methods, logical inquiry, and reasoning)
- john deweys "and the further conclusions to which is tends" means Answer> it matters that we identify the implications of our beliefs or acceptance of the received knowledge
- as a peroperative nurse thinking about a course of action, a good question to ask oneself is "what data did i use to reach this decision/course of action?" this is an example of Answer> using evidence
- is the information, or data, on which a conclusion might be based Answer> - evidence
- introspection Answer> self-reflection
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- logic Answer> reasoning
- revelent criteria Answer> has bearing upon the situation
- knowledge Answer> based on understanding and skill
- judgement Answer> base on reason, evidence, logic, and good sense
- nurses who think critically are constantly aware of context, culture, and environment Answer> all three apply to the clinical setting, the health care system, and the patient, and are affected by values and beliefs
- an individual's critical thinking abilities are demonstrated within a specific clinical setting. the clinical setting reflects a culture that is affected by Answer> beliefs, attitudes, values
- the PNDS is an example of how critical thinking supports positive patient outcomes. why is this so? Answer> components of PNDS necessitate application of the components of critical thinking and reflect a process for identifying interventions
10 / 31 Answer> inspect the camera head for smudges or debris. plug the camera into the CCU and turn on the unit complete white balancing of the camera
- which light source should be used in a surgery where bright light is required? Answer> xenon light source
- alarms Answer> indicate the levl of co
- nasogastric tube Answer> to decompress the stomach
- two-way disposable filter Answer> prevent contamination of the operative cavity
- laparoscopic instruments with small, blunt tips are used for Answer> dissect tissue
- what instruments can be used in laparoscopic surgery? a. babcock forceps b. mosquitoes forceps c. needle holder forceps d. dissector forceps
11 / 31 Answer> ACD
- what are additional assessments that should be made by the perioperative nurse before an endoscopic surgery Answer> history of DVT consent for open surgery history of previous incisions
- what are the complications associated with laparoscopic surgery? Answer> wound infections, CO2 embolism
- what are some methods used to maintain a sterile camera head? Answer> put camera head in sterile pouch gas-sterile camera head
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- carbon dioxide is the gas used for abdominal insufflation because Answer> - it is readily absorbed by the body
- is inexpensive
- suppresses combustion
- it is rapidly eliminated by the body
- recommend prompt cleanup of items stained with blood, tissue, or body fluids Answer> confine and certain principles
- what are some activities that may be managed by environmental services?- Answer> end-of-procedure cleaning terminal cleaning
- tuberculocidals are a special class of disinfectants. in order to be labeled "tuberculocidal", products need to have demonstrated potency against Answer> my- cobacteria
- a hospital disinfectant has passed the potency test for activity against the given three microorgnisms Answer> pseudomonas aeruginosa, staphylococcus aureas, and salmonella cholerae suis
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- T/F vehicles transporting patients are not considered to be contaminated and hence do not need to be cleaned during end-of-procedure cleaning Answer> false
- T/F terminal cleaning of the OR is performed at the end of each surgical procedure in order to render the environment safe for the patient following in that room and to prevent cross-contamination Answer> false
- what is the best practices to be followed when performing environmental sanitation? Answer> a. when cleaning spills of blood or any other potentially infectious material, use gloves and any other PPE that is appropriate to the task
16 / 31 spray bottles are not used to apply disinfectant
- the proper device for the disposal of blades, needles, stapling devices, pins, and cautery tips should Answer> a sharps disposal container
- the goals of performing interim cleaning of the OR/procedure room per- formed at the end of each surgical procedure include the following Answer> a. it renders the environment safe for the patient following in that room to prevent cross-contamination b. it breaks the cycle of contamination from the patient to the environment and from the environmental personnel and then to subsequent patients c. after each surgical procedure, a safe and clean environment should be reestab- lished d. it is the patient's right to have a clean and safe enviornment
- terminal cleaning must be done Answer> once during each 24 - hour period
- during the end of the procedure cleaning a. a Answer> a. all kick buckets, hampers, and similar receptacles must be inspected and disinfected as needed
17 / 31 b. transport vehicles are to be considered contaminated after patient contact d. all horizontal surfaces of tables and equipment, including the anesthesia machine, should be whipped with a lint-free cloth moistened with a hospital-approved disin- fectant
- what pathogens are commonly found in the OR environment? Answer> e. coli MRSA serratia marcescens
19 / 31 procedures Answer> tonsil sponges
- used for packing or walling off viscera and for absorbing fluid in large areas Answer> lap sponges
- used to absorb fluid and blood during cranial procedures and around the spinal cord in place of coarse gauze sponges Answer> neuro-patties or cottonoids
- used in all surgical procedures to absorb blood and other fluids; material contains x-ray detectable filaments Answer> x-ray detectable 4x4s
- used to absorb blood/fluid in very small areas or to dissect through deli- cate tissue Answer> dissector sponges
- used to drain fluids or blood after abdominal, urologic, thoracic, and head and neck procedures Answer> Jackson-Pratt
- primarily used to urinary drainage, but can also be used as a gastrostomy tube or to drain the gallbladder following a cholescystectomy
20 / 31 Answer> foley catheter
- usually placed in a "stab" wound that is made adjacent to the main incision or may be placed near an intestinal anastomosis Answer> penrose drain
- what dressing is used if the goal were hydration of the tissue Answer> hydrogel
- sponge counts are done except Answer> because state laws require specific count procedures
- why avoid using radiopaque sponges for post op dressings? Answer> may appear as a foreign body on post-op x-ray possible invalidation of subsequent sponge counts if the patient were returned to the OR with intact dressing
- which classification of hemostatic methods involves pressure or the use of ligating clips? Answer> mechanical
