APEA PREDICTOR EXAM 2025 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (, Exams of Nursing

APEA PREDICTOR EXAM 2025 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+BRAND NEW!!

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APEA PREDICTOR EXAM 2025 ACTUAL EXAM
COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED
A+BRAND NEW!!
1) A 15 years old high school student with a mild sore throat and low-grade fever
that has persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports general malaise, fatigue, and loss of
appetite. The NP suspects mononucleosis. Which of the following is the LEAST
appropriate intervention? a. Palpate the lymph nodes and spleen b. Examine
the posterior oropharynx for petechiae
c. Obtain a CBC, throat culture, and heterophil antibody test.
d. Obtain an urinalyses and serum for LFTs and amylase
Explanation: mononucleosis is a symptomatic infection caused by the Epstein-Bar
virus. Common is people 15-24 years of age. Common signs and symptoms following
incubation period (1-2 months) include fatigue, chills, malaise, anorexia, white tonsillar
exudates and lymphadenopathy or posterior cervical region. Splenomegaly can be
present. A maculopapular or occasionally a petechial rash occurs in less than 15% of
patients. A diagnosis is usually made using the Monospot. In addition, neutropenia and
lymphocytosis are usually detected in the CBC.
2) A 32 years old male patient complaint of urinary frequency and burning on urination
for 3 days. Urinalyses reveals bacteriuria and positive nitrites. He denies any past hx. Of
urinary tract infections. The initial treatment should be:
a. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Sulfatrim) for 7-
10 day
b. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days
c. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
d. 750 mg ciprofloxacin as a one-time dose
Explanation: trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMPS) is usually n appropriate
medication to treat urinary tract infections in most patients. In the case of community
resistance to TMPS >20%^, another medication should be substituted. In men, the
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Download APEA PREDICTOR EXAM 2025 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS ( and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

APEA PREDICTOR EXAM 2025 ACTUAL EXAM

COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED

ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED

A+BRAND NEW!!

  1. A 15 years old high school student with a mild sore throat and low-grade fever

that has persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports general malaise, fatigue, and loss of

appetite. The NP suspects mononucleosis. Which of the following is the LEAST

appropriate intervention? a. Palpate the lymph nodes and spleen b. Examine

the posterior oropharynx for petechiae

c. Obtain a CBC, throat culture, and heterophil antibody test.

d. Obtain an urinalyses and serum for LFTs and amylase

Explanation: mononucleosis is a symptomatic infection caused by the Epstein-Bar

virus. Common is people 15-24 years of age. Common signs and symptoms following

incubation period (1-2 months) include fatigue, chills, malaise, anorexia, white tonsillar

exudates and lymphadenopathy or posterior cervical region. Splenomegaly can be

present. A maculopapular or occasionally a petechial rash occurs in less than 15% of

patients. A diagnosis is usually made using the Monospot. In addition, neutropenia and

lymphocytosis are usually detected in the CBC.

  1. A 32 years old male patient complaint of urinary frequency and burning on urination

for 3 days. Urinalyses reveals bacteriuria and positive nitrites. He denies any past hx. Of

urinary tract infections. The initial treatment should be:

a. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Sulfatrim) for 7-

10 day

b. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days

c. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole for 3 days

d. 750 mg ciprofloxacin as a one-time dose

Explanation: trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMPS) is usually n appropriate

medication to treat urinary tract infections in most patients. In the case of community

resistance to TMPS >20%^, another medication should be substituted. In men, the

appropriate length of time is 7-10 days. Women may be treated for 3 days for

uncomplicated UTI

  1. Which agent is most effective for the treatment of nodulocystic acne? a.

Benzoyl peroxide (Benzac) b. Retinoic acid (Retin A) c.

Topical tetracycline

d. Isotretinoin)

Explanation: Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a systemic agent indicated for treatment with

severe inflammatory acne. Guidelines for its use must be clearly understood by the

patient. A woman of childbearing age must use an effective method of contraception

because isotretinoin is teratogenic. There are many restrictions in prescribing this

medication because of the teratogenic effects is given during pregnancy. Therefore, it is

a pregnancy category X.

  1. An 18 y/o woman is taking a combined hormonal oral contraceptive. She should be

instructed to use a backup method for the prevention of pregnancy a. Throughout the

week of placebo pills

b. If prescribed topiramate (Topamax) for the treatment of migraines.

Explanation : malpractice, a negligence tort, occurs when a health care professional’s

actions fall bellow the appropriate standard of care and hurts the patient. In this case the

patient came with sings and symptoms indicating appendicitis and the NP failed to refer

the patient..

  1. A NP has recently been hired to work in a fast track facility.

The NP employer asked if she has “a problem prescribing medications for emergency

contraception.” The NP replies affirmatively. This is: a. Grounds for dismissal

b. An ethical dilemma for the NP

c. Illegal according to the standards of nursing

d. Patient abandonment.

Explanation: in this instance, the NP has a difference of opinion with her employer

based on her religious or moral belief about providing emergency contraception. This

situation is an example of an ethical dilemma. Failure to participate in the provision of

care to the patient based on the NP’s beliefs is neither against the law nor a violation of

the standards of practice

  1. A patient presents with pruritic lesions on both knees. There are visible silver

scales. How Should this condition be managed?

a. Topical antifungal cream or ointment

b. Oral antibiotics

c. Topical corticosteroids cream

d. Topical anti-fungal/ steroid cream

Explanation: Psoriasis is characterized by erythematous papules, as well as itchy, red,

precisely defined plaques with silvery scales. Auspitz sings is another common finding.

Topical agents containing tar and salicylic acid may be used. Topical steroids, such as

betamethasone, may also be ordered.

  1. Antidepressant discontinuation syndrome is less likely if the patient a. Is male

b. Is less than 35 y/o

c. Has taken an SSRI with a short half life

d. Gradually tapers SSRI use

Explanation: Antidepressant discontinuation syndrome is most often seen in the

primary care office in association with SSRI discontinuation, because SSRIs are the

most commonly prescribed class of antidepressant medications. Interruption of

treatment with an anti-depressant medication is sometimes associated with an

antidepressant discontinuation syndrome; in early reports it was referred to as a

“withdrawal reaction. Symptoms of antidepressant discontinuation syndrome can

include flu-like symptoms, insomnia, nausea, imbalance, sensory disturbances, and

hyperarousal. Tapering is recommended by experts.

  1. Patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) should be taught to avoid which

one of the following drug classes? a. Alpha adrenergic antagonist b. Anti-

androgen agents

c. Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)

d. Sulfonamides

Explanation: tricyclic antidepressant should not be used by men with benign prostatic

hyperplasia because of the increased risk of urinary retention secondary to the

anticholigergic effects of TCAs.

  1. Which of the following is the best response to a woman who has just admitted she

is a victim of spousal abuse? a. What was if you did to make him angry? b. You

must seek refuge immediately

c. I am concerned about your safety

d. I am going to call a shelter for you

Explanation: The first step is to establish trust in the therapeutic relationship. without

trust future collaboration, intervention and client outcome cannot be accomplished to

facilitate appropriate and safe behavior. The experience of abuse is a traumatic

psychological crisis that must be addressed as such. The healthcare providers must

emphasize the fact that the victim has not done anything wrong and they must also

emphasize the fact that the victim's life and the lives of their children can be in danger if

the abuse is not addressed. It will not disappear with a lack of action. An order of

protection against the perpetrator is often recommended.

  1. For which patient group does the US Preventive Services Task Force recommend

routine screening for asymptomatic bacteriuria a. pregnant woman b. Children

c. Patients with diabetes

d. patients over the age of 70

Explanation : an increased incidence of bacteriuria is found in all the population listed.

However, bacteriuria in pregnant women increases the mother…..Also increased is the

risk of a pre-term delivery, which then increases perinatal and fetal morbidity and

mortality. The recommended it….

  1. What diabetic complications result from hyperglycemia?
  1. According to the JNC 8 guideline hypertension in a 40 y/o can be diagnosed when

blood pressure exceeds a. 140/90 b. 130/90 c. 125/

d. 150/

Explanation: According to JNC 8 guidelines, hypertension is a sustained elevation of

systolic BP greater than or equal to 140 mmHg or diastolic BP greater or equal than

90mmHg, taken from 2 or more readings on 2 different occasions after an initial

screening.

  1. A 48 y/o female complains of pain and stiffness in her right hip and knee that is

mild on awakening in the morning, get worse as the day progresses and is relived with

hot baths and ibuprofen. Crepitus is palpated on range of motion of the knee. Signs of

inflammation are notably absent. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Rheumatoid

arthritis (RA) b.

Gout

c. Osteoarthritis (OA)

d. Osteoporosis

Explanation: Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by several joint deformities, usually

bilaterally symmetrical. RA is characterized by inflammatory processes, while OA is

not. RA and OA are chronic conditions. Gout is characterized by acute exacerbations

related to a defect in purine metabolism, increased uric acid production, or decreased

uric acid excretion.

  1. A 7-year old female patient presents with severe injuries that are inconsistent with

the explanation given for them. The nurse practitioner questions the mother about

abuse. She admits that her husband, the child’s father, beat the child. How should the

nurse practitioner proceed? a. Inform the mother that the abuse must be reported to

child protection authorities.

b. Counsel the mother that if it happens again it will be reported to child protection

service.

c. Ask the child what she did to cause the punishment

d. Refer the family to the National Domestic Violence hotline.

Explanation: An awareness of all the unique presentations of child abuse, subjective or

objective, physical, sexual, or neglect, is essential for NPs. Objective findings, such as

broken bones, burns, and bruises, may be as a result of an intentional injury from

physical abuse or from an unintentional injury as a result of neglect. Both must be

considered. Repeated visits to the emergency department, frequent or suspicious

injuries, or bilateral or multiple healing fractures are often indicators of physical abuse.

Once the diagnosis of child abuse has been made, the primary role of the NP is to ensure

the child is safe. If the NP suspect that a child is undergoing abuse, it’s critical to report

it—and to continue reporting each separate incidence if it continues to recur.

  1. A 1-month-old presents with reported recurrent diarrhea, screaming, and drawing

up of the legs followed by periods of lethargy. On physical examination, a “sausage-

like” mass in the upper right quadrant of the distended abdomen. Which of the

following is the most likely diagnosis? a. Intussusception b. Volvulus

c. Crohn’s disease

d. Foreign body in the GI tract explanation: Intussusception is one of the most

common causes of abdominal obstruction in children prior 2 years of age; is best

described as a

portion of the intestine which telescopes into a more distal intestinal segment. The

classic triad of intussusception include crampy

(intermittent, also known as colicky) abdominal pain, vomiting, and bloody stools. The

patient may pull up his knees with crying. The patient may develop vomiting with

bilious emesis. Progressive lethargy/altered level of consciousness and pallor is

common. The etiology of this lethargic presentation is not known, but it tends to occur

in younger infants. As intussusception progresses, a palpable, sausage-shape mass may

develop. Some hypothesize that this is due to release of endogenous opioids or

endotoxins released from ischemic bowel. Intussusception in a child presenting with

lethargy is often difficult to diagnose since other causes of lethargy such as dehydration,

hypoglycemia, sepsis, toxic ingestion, post-ictal state, etc., must also be considered.

Ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic test. Enemas is considered the first line of

treatment prior surgery. Volvulus occurs more frequently in middle-aged and elderly

men. Cronos’s is most often diagnosed between 13 – 30 years of age.

  1. A middle-aged female complains of insomnia, night sweats, feeling intensely hot,

emotional lability, extreme nervousness and impatience. The LEAST likely cause of her

symptoms is a.

Thyrotoxicosis

b. Menopausal vasomotor instability

c. Alcohol or another drug withdrawal

d. New onset type 2 diabetes mellitus

Explanation: New onset diabetes produces elevated serum glucose levels less than 200

mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) and usually no clinical signs or symptoms. At higher levels, the

patient may report lethargy, fatigue, weakness, weight loss, and polydipsia, polyuria,

a. Refer to a cardiologist as soon as possible

b. Prescribe long-acting nitroglycerin

c. Order treadmill stress test

d. Prescribe an ACE inhibitor and re-evaluate in 24 to 48 hours

Explanation: The patient has at least a 70% occlusion of a major coronary artery. For a

patient to be considered for CABG, the coronary arteries to be bypassed must have

approximately a 70% occlusion (60% if in the left main coronary artery).

  1. A 3 y/o has enlarged, warm, tender cervical lymph nodes, indicating: a. Infection

proximal to the nodes b. A possible cancer diagnosis

c. Shorty nodes, a common normal variant in children

d. An infectious process distal to the nodes explanation: size of lymph nodes is

important. Nodes > 1 cm are significant and should be asses carefully. Nodes > 5

cm are almost always neoplastic. Tenderness of a node usually suggest

inflammation. Cancerous nodes frequently are larger, nontender, and stone-like in

consistency. Nodes are pea-sized, nontender, mobile, discrete and reflect

preexistent infection.

  1. The NP examines a 2-month-old with unequal gluteal and thigh skin folds. What

should the NP do next? a. Send the infant for x-ray of the hips b. Send the

infant for ultrasound of the hips

c. Perform Ortolani and Barlow test

d. Examine the infant for unequal arm length Explanation: Gluteal and thigh skin fold

asymmetry may indicate congenital hip dysplasia. X- ray studies are not useful

before 3 months-of-age because the femoral head has not completely ossified.

  1. A very active 35 years old male has painful hemorrhoid, but he does not want

hemorrhoidal surgery at this time. His diet has been indiscriminate as his job requires

frequent travel. The most appropriate recommendation is for him to select food that are: a.

Low in fiber such as milk and other dairy products

b. High in simple carbohydrates such as white bread and mashed potatoes

c. High in fiber such as bran, complex carbohydrates and fresh fruit

d. High protein such a meat, poultry and fish

Explanation : Hemorrhoid disease is the most common reason patients seek evaluation

by a colon and rectal surgeon. The majority of hemorrhoids can be managed

nonoperatively with medical management or office-based procedures. Patients should

benefit from minimizing straining and avoiding constipation. Bulking of the stool

facilitates this and can be accomplished by increasing dietary fiber and fluid intake.

Stool softeners may also be used.

  1. Correct instructions to give new parent who are transporting their newborn infant is

a.

b. The infant car set may be secured in the back or front seat, but must rear-facing

c. The infant car seat may be front facing when the infant is 1 year old

d. A rear or front-facing infant car seat must be secured in the back seat until the

infant weight 20 lbs.

Explanation: The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommends that infants

and toddlers ride in a rear-facing seat until they are 2 years old or until they have

reached the maximum weight and height limits recommended by the manufacturer

  1. A 13 y/o pt. complains that he fell while running during football practice. Now his

knee hurts and sometimes “lucks”. The NP conducts McMurrays test. Which of the

following is TRUE about this test?

a. An audible or palpated “click” is positive for a torn meniscus

b. A various stress is applied to the flexed knee

c. The straight leg is internally rotated with the patient supine and flat

d. The knee is grasped with the examiner’s fingers placed laterally.

Explanation: Mac Murray’s test is conducted while the patient is in the supine position.

The NP places the distal hand on the foot and raises the knee slowly, keeping the foot and

knee externally rotated with the proximal hand resting on the join line. The knee is flexed

and then quickly straightened. If an audible or palpable click occurs during the this test,

the outcome is positive for medial meniscal injury.

  1. A 20 y/o male patient complains of “scrotal swelling”. He states his scrotum feels

heavy but denies pain. On examination, the NP notes transillumination of the scrotum.

What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Hydrocele b. Orchitis c. Testicular torsion

d. Indirect inguinal hernia

Explanation: Hydrocele is common in newborns and usually disappears without

treatment within the first year. Older men can develop hydroceles, sometimes due to

inflammation or injury. Hydroceles are usually painless, but may become large and

inconvenient. An ultrasound may be needed to diagnose the condition.

  1. A 15 y/o male has a hx of cryptorchidism which was surgically repaired. Because of

this information, it is essential for the NP to teach him about a. Testicular

A rear-facing infant car seat secured in the backseat is required until the infant

weight 20

lbs.

ethnicity, cigarette smoking, inactive lifestyle, low weight and postmenopausal estrogen

deficiency including premature menopause.

  1. According to Erickson, the developmental task of the elderly adult is: a.

Intimacy VS isolation explanation:

b. Ego integrity VS

despair

c. Industry VS self-

doubt Trust Vs

mistrust

d.

  1. Moderate weight loss, particularly of visceral adipose tissue in patients with

type 2 diabetes mellitus may have all of the following beneficial effects

EXCEPT: a.

Improved insulin sensitivity

b. Increased glucose uptake and utilization by the cells

c. Increase lean muscle mass’

d. Improved lipid profile

Explanation: Regular, consistent exercise is an essential part of diabetes and

prediabetes management. The ADA recommends that people with diabetes perform at

least 30 minutes, 5 days/wk of a moderate-intensity aerobic physical activity. The ADA

also encourages people with type 2 diabetes to perform resistance training 3Xwk in the

absence of contraindications. Exercise contributes to weight loss, which further

decreases insulin resistance. The therapeutic benefits of regular physical activity may

result in a decreased need for diabetes medications to reach target blood glucose goals.

Regular exercise may also help reduce triglyceride and lowdensity lipoprotein (LDL)

cholesterol levels, increase high-density lipoprotein (HDL), reduce BP, and improve

circulation. Patients who use insulin, sulfonylureas, or meglitinides are at increased risk

for hypoglycemia when they increase physical activity.

  1. A 12 y/o presents with eat pain or 36 hours duration. The

NP diagnoses acute otitis media because the

a. Tympanic membrane is bulging and glossy with tiny bubbles visible posteriorly

b. Tympanic membrane is retracted against boy landmarks

c. Bony landmarks are obscured, and the tympanic membrane is mildly

erythematous, dulls and immobile.

d. Canal is narrowed, erythematous, and exquisitely tender with speculum contact

Explanation: Serous otitis media typically presents with a flat or bulging and

tympanic membrane with a fluid line and/or tiny bubbles visible posteriorly. The

tympanic membrane may be immobile and retracted against the bony landmarks

when the eustachian tube is swollen or congested as with the common cold or

allergies. Narrowing of the external canal with erythema and extreme tenderness

of the canal wall is indicative of otitis externa.

  1. The NP should instruct the mother of an infant with thrush to: a.

Take oral nystatin since she is breastfeeding

b. Stop breast feeding until the thrush has resolved

c. administer antifungal medication to the infant prior to feeding

d. sterilized pacifiers and bottle nipples

explanation : Most bouts of oral thrush occur for no apparent reason. However,

regularly sterilization of pacifiers, bottlesfeed and other mouth toys used by the baby

may help to prevent some bouts.

remember ever getting that shot” She has negative serologic evidence of rubella

antibody. The NP should:

a. Tell her that her serologic evidence demonstrates that she is immune to the rubella

and that

she probably has the disease as a child

b. Administer the vaccination after a negative pregnancy test and advise the patient

that she

must not get pregnant for 28 days

c. Tell her that she needs the immunization and can get today if her pregnancy test is

negative

d. Administer the rubella vaccination after a negative pregnancy test and advise her

not to get

pregnant for at least 6 months.

Explanation: Due to this very small chance of illness, the Centers for Disease Control

and Prevention (CDC) recommend waiting 28 days after getting the MMR vaccine

before trying to get pregnant.

  1. A 45 y/o obese pre-menopausal female complains of indigestion, flatulence, RUQ

pain and epigastric “crampy pain”. Symptoms are exacerbated by high-fat meal. What is

the most likely diagnosis? a. Hepatitis b. Chronic cholecystitis

c. Acute pancreatitis

d. Myocarditis

Explanation: The “typical” patient with chronic cholecystitis is

“female, fat, fertile, and (over)

40” years of age. Myocarditis produces retrosternal pain that is not related to diet. The

pain of pancreatitis radiates to the back. The pain of hepatitis is non-specific upper

quadrant pain.

  1. A 16 y/o male presents w/ mild sore throat, fever, fatigue, posterior cervical

adenopathy, and palatine petechia. With for this patient, what drug would be the LEAST

appropriate to prescribe? a. Ibuprofen

b. Erythromycin

c. Ampicillin

d. Doxycycline

Explanation: Mono can be managed with supportive care, including NSAIDs,

and warm sailing gargles. patients with strep throat should be prescribed penny

ceiling or every throw myosin instead of amoxicillin or ampicillin because

amoxicillin and ampicillin often cause a rash in mono patients.

  1. A characteristic of delirium that is typically absent in dementia is

a. Acute onset of confusion in a previously alert and oriented patient

b. Gradual loss of short-term memory

c. Loss of language skills

d. Long term memory gaps filled in with confabulation Explanation : Delirium is

acute confusional state, is potentially a reversible cognitive impairment that often

has a physiological cause; physiological causes include electrolyte imbalances,

cerebral anoxia (an absence of oxygen); hypoglycemia; medication effects;

tumors; subdural hematoma; and cerebral infection, infarction, or hemorrhage.

Dementia is a generalized impairment of intellectual functioning that interferes

with social and occupational functioning. It is an umbrella term that includes

Alzheimer's disease, Lewy body disease, frontaltemporal dementia, and vascular

dementia.

  1. It is imperative that the NP teach patients taking oral contraceptives to

report any of the danger signs of complications. Which of the following would

be the LEAST concern to the NP? a. Lower leg pain b. Upper abdominal

pain c. Chest pain

d. Weight gain

Explanation: Common side effects of OCP includes: bleeding between periods, nausea,

breast tenderness, headaches and weight gain. The symptoms often subside after a few

months of use. Lower Leg pain can be indicative of- DVT. Other major complication

can include the liver, gallbladder or the cardiac organ.

  1. Which of the following oral medications should be avoided in a child under 8 years

of age? a. Cephalexin (Keflex) b. Tetracycline c. Rifampin

d. Metronidazole (flaggyl)

Explanation: Children younger than 8 years old should not take tetracycline.

Deposition in the bone and primary dentition occurs during calcification in growing

children. This causes discoloration and hypoplasia of the teeth and a temporary stunting

of growth.

  1. Which of the following descriptions of Denver II Developmental Screening Test is

most accurate?

  1. which oral hypoglycemic agent would be safest for an elderly patient

if hypoglycemia is a major concern? a. Tolbutamide (orinase) b.

Glipizide (Glucotrol)

c. Metformin (Glucophage)

d. Chlorpropamide (diabinese)

Explanation: When used alone, metformin typically does not cause hypoglycemia

and is usually weight neutral or causes modest weight loss. Given the low risk of

hypoglycemia, metformin has an important role in elderly patients with diabetes, as

long as patients are selected appropriately to avoid the risk of lactic acidosis.

  1. the components of the Denver II Developmental screening test are: a.

Personal/social, fine motor, gross motor, language

b. Intelligence, motor performance, language development

c. Vocabulary, clarity of speech, abstract thinking

d. Problem-solving, speech, gross motor, fine motor Explanation: The Denver II

Developmental Screening Test is the most widely used tool to assess early

childhood development and rates the categories of personal–social, fine motor–

adaptive, language, and gross motor skills. The nurse should explain to the parent

before administering the test that this test does not measure intelligence but of

the child's level of development or ability to perform age-appropriate tasks.

DDST II Assesses: Gross motor function

Language development

Fine motor-adaptive skills

Personal-social skills

  1. A patient has been taking fluoxetine (prozar) since being diagnosed with major

depression 7 month ago. She reports considerable empowerment in her symptoms and

her intention to discontinue the medication what should be the NP’s recommendation?

a. Advice the patient to stop the antidepressant medication

b. Question the patient to determine if the self-assessment is correct before advising

her to discontinue the medication

c. Recommend that the patient continue the antidepressant medication for at least 4

more

month

d. Discuss with the patient that need to take the antidepressant medication indefinitely

Explanation: Anxiety Treatment Clinical guidelines for managing MDD also

recommend that patients should maintain antidepressant use for at least 6–9 months

after full symptom remission and that patients with some risk factors.

  1. for the general adult population, total dietary fat intake should be no more than

what percent of total calories? a) 10% b) 20% c) 30%

d)40%

Explanation: Clinical trials suggest that heart disease mortality rates un the US could

be lowered by 5 to 20% if all Americans restricted their fat intake to less than 30% of

total daily calories, 7% from saturated fat.

  1. A 30 y/o female patient is being seen by the NP for the first time. She is seeking

advice from the NP about becoming pregnant. She is currently taking an oral

contraceptive. She gives a hx of having hydatidiform molar pregnancy 2 years ago. An

appropriate plan of care for this

a. patient should include

b. Delaying pregnancy for 1 more year

c. Measuring serum chorionic gonadotropin level

d. Discontinuing oral contraceptive

e. Recommending permanent sterilization

Explanation: A Women should be instructed to use birth control for 1 year after treatment

for a hydatidiform mole. Pregnancy

raises hCG levels which increases the risk for choriocarcinoma.

  1. which of the following is NOT a goal for treatment for the patient with cystic

fibrosis? a. Prevent intestinal obstruction b. Provide adequate nutrition

c. Promote clearance of secretions

d. Replace water soluble vitamins

Explanation: most patients with cystic fibrosis have insufficient release of pancreatic

enzymes. This results in malabsorption of the fat-soluble vitamins….meconium ileus ,

resembles appendicitis in these patients

  1. A 24 y/o female taking oral contraceptive has missed her last 2 pills. What should

the NP advise her to do to minimize her risk of pregnancy?

a. Take today’s dose and do not miss any more during this month

Double today’s dose and tomorrow’s dose and use a barrier

method for the rest of this