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ARDMS ECHO PRACTICE EXAM 2025– 2026
ACCURATE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
CORRECT ANSWERS
All of the following will cause aortic dilatation EXCEPT a. Marfan's Syndrome b. Systemic hypertension c. Type I dissection d. Pulmonary hypertension - answer>>>d
An M-mode of a mitral heterograft valve resembles an M-mode of which valve? a.Mitral b. Pulmonic c. Aortic d. Tricuspid - answer>>>c
If a patient has Starr-Edwards valve in both the mitral and aortic positions, mitral regurgitation might be best detected from which window? a. Subcostal b. Left parasternal c. Apical d. Suprasternal - answer>>>a
When using M-mode to interrogate a Starr-Edwards mitral valve which window could you use? a. Apical b. Suprasternal c. Parasternal d. Subcostal - answer>>>a
All of the following are etiologies for valvular endocarditis EXCEPT: a. Marantic b. Pulmonary hypertension c. IV drug abuse d. Post cardiac surgery - answer>>>b
In endocarditis the vegetations usually attach on: a. Abnormal leaflets only b. The down-stream side of the valve c. The flow side of the valve d. Only one leaflet - answer>>>c
All of the following are examples of mechanical cardiac valves EXCEPT: a. Bjork-Shiley tilting disk b. Hancock c. Starr-Edwards ball valve d. St. Jude bi-leaflet - answer>>>b
Patients with Marfan syndrome often die from: a. Endocarditis b. Aortic regurgitation c. Aortic dissection d. Mitral valve prolapse - answer>>>c
All of the following are different types of endocarditis except: a. Aosinophilic b. Marantic c. Dressler's d. Libman-Sachs - answer>>>c
c. Four d. One hundred and twenty-eight One - answer>>>a
The left ventricular diastolic pressure is comparable to which of the following pressures? a. Right ventricular diastolic b. Right ventricular systolic c. Aortic systolic d. Mean left atrial - answer>>>d
The anterior and apical wall of the left ventricle is supplied by which coronary artery? a. Right coronary artery b. Acute marginal c. Left anterior descending d. Left circumflex - answer>>>c
All of the following are frequencies used in adult chest wall echocardiograms EXCEPT: a. 3.5 MHz b. 2.5 MHz c. 4.5 MHz d. 6.0 MHz e. 2.0 MHz - answer>>>d
How do you position a patient for a TEE Exam? a. Supine b. Left lateral decubitus c. Supine with elevated head d. Trendelenburg - answer>>>b
Which cardiac valve lies closest to the apex of the heart? a. Tricuspid b. Mitral c. Pulmonic d. Aortic - answer>>>a
Which of the following has the most impact on color Doppler jet size? a. Wall filter b. Doppler gain c. TGC gain d. Frame rate - answer>>>b
When using PEDOF continuous wave Doppler probe, the cardiac sonographer must rely on the: a. Valve that is visualized on the screen b. Placement of the cursor on the 2D image c. Spectral display in comparison to the EKG d. Size of the Doppler gate - answer>>>c
Externally where is the left anterior descending coronary artery found? a. Anterior interventricular sulcus b. Posterior interventricular sulcus c. Anterior coronary sinus d. Atrioventricular sulcus - answer>>>a
A prominent Eustachian valve is seen in the right atrium, the Eustachian valve is: a. A portion of the atrial septum which is patent before birth and does not fuse after delivery b. Normal valve of the superior vena cava commonly seen in the subcostal view c. A normal valve of the inferior vena cava commonly seen in the subcostal view d. A normal valve of the coronary sinus seen in a parasternal short axis - answer>>>c
a. "c" notch b. "b" dip c. "a" dip d. "b" notch - answer>>>c
When transporting a patient with a urinary catheter, the bag should always be: a. Below the patient's heart b. Level with the patient's heart c. Below the patient's bladder d. Above the patient's bladder - answer>>>c
Doppler views for evaluating the severity of Aortic stenosis include: a. Subcostal four chamber view, suprasternal notch and left sternal border b. Apical long axis view, suprasternal notch and right sternal border c. Apical long axis view, subcostal short axis and right sternal border d. Apical four chamber view, suprasternal notch and right sternal border - answer>>>b
Surgically what happens during a Mustard procedure? a. The SVC is connected to the right pulmonary artery b. Baffles at the atrial level redirect blood flow into the ventricles c. A valve conduit is positioned between the RV and the pulmonary artery d. The right ventricle is connected to the pulmonary via a conduit - answer>>>b
The major development of the heart is complete by the end of week: a. Ten b. Four c. Seven d. Three - answer>>>c
Patients develop Eisenmenger's syndrome because: a. They have a ventricular septal defect b. Pulmonary pressures now exceed systemic c. Systemic pressures now exceed pulmonary d. Tricuspid regurgitation is now severe - answer>>>b
The hemodynamic effect of an atrial septal defect depends on all of the following EXCEPT: a. Degree of aortic regurgitation b. Response of the pulmonary vascular bed c. Compliance of the ventricles d. Size and direction of the shunt - answer>>>a
The most common form of cyanotic congenital heart disease is: a. Coarctation of the aorta b. Tetralogy of Fallot c. Pulmonary stenosis d. Atrial septal defects - answer>>>b
Which of the following statements are true about tetralogy of fallot defects? a. Has an atrial septal defect b. Pulmonary stenosis is valvular c. VSD with R to L shunting d. Made up of five defects - answer>>>c
If a large patent ductus arteriosus is not corrected what might develop? a. Pericardial effusion b. Eisenmenger syndrome c. Pulmonary hypertension d. Pulmonary edema - answer>>>b
c. Perimembanous ventricular septal defect d. Membranous ventricular septal defect - answer>>>b
Peripheral (saline) contrast is NOT useful in: a. Atrial septal defects b. Tricuspid regurgitation c. Ventricular septal defects d. Aortic regurgitation - answer>>>d
In patients that develop Eisenmengers syndrome what happens? a. Spontaneous closure of the shunt b. The shunt reverses direction and is not L to R c. The shunt reverses direction and is R to L d. The shunt suddenly becomes worse - answer>>>c
A 3 year old patient comes in to the echo lab with a murmur, what is most likely the etiology? a. Patent ductus arteriosus b. Atrial septal defect c. Ventricular septal defect - answer>>>c
Given tricuspid regurgitation with a 64 mmHg gradient, the severity of pulmonary hypertension is: a. None b. Moderate c. Severe d. Mild - answer>>>c
The communication between the aorta and the pulmonary artery that may persist after birth is called: a. Patent foramen ovale b. Persistent fetal circulation
c. Persistent ductus arteriosus d. Patent ductus arteriosus - answer>>>d
Ebstein's anomaly involves the downward displacement of the tricuspid valve leaflets into the right ventricle. A portion of the right ventricle becomes: a. Atrialized b. A VSD c. An ASD d. A patent foramen ovale - answer>>>a
All of the following are indications for a stress echo EXCEPT: a. Aid in the diagnosis of chest pain b. Evaluate cardiac arrhythmias c. Guide post MI rehab d. Increase in revenue compared to nuclear studies - answer>>>d
The treatment of choice for constrictive pericarditis is: a. Pericardiectomy b. Pericardiocentesis c. Cardiac transplantation d. Pericardial tap - answer>>>a
What might be the first indication of metastatic cardiac stress disease? a. Myxoma b. Right atrial mass c. Pericardial effusion d. Left atrial mass - answer>>>c
One of the most common complications of myocardial infarction is:
Which of the following is a complication of a myocardial infarction? a. Pericardial effusion b. Atrial septal defect c. Stroke d. Headache - answer>>>a
What type of myocardial infarction causes papillary muscle rupture? a. Inferior b. Transmural c. Anterior d. Posterior - answer>>>a
The apex of the apical 4 chamber view is fed by which coronary artery? a. Left circumflex b. Left anterior descending c. Left first marginal d. Right coronary artery - answer>>>b
Which of the following pathologies would most likely affect coronary artery circulation? a. Pulmonic stenosis b. Mitral regurgitation c. Mitral stenosis d. Aortic regurgitation - answer>>>d
In parasternal long axis view a pericardial effusion would be located a. Not seen in this view b. Anterior to the ascending aorta c. Anterior to the descending aorta
d. Posterior to the descending aorta - answer>>>c
Which coronary artery supplies the interatrial septum? a. Circumflex coronary artery b. Left anterior descending c. Right coronary d. Left main coronary - answer>>>c
During a stress echocardiogram only one of these left ventricular segments can be seen in the apical two chamber view: a. Apical-septal b. Basal-septal c. Mid-anteroseptal d. Mid-anterior - answer>>>d
What would you look for in a patient with Kawasaki disease? a. Dilated cardiomyopathy b. Coronary artery aneurysms c. Left atrial mass d. Atrial septal defect e. Pericardial effusion - answer>>>b
When performing an echocardiogram on a patient with known heart failure you should pay particular attention on all of the following EXCEPT: a. Diastolic function b. QP/QS evaluation c. Chamber size d. Chamber function - answer>>>b
b. Reduced mitral valve excursion c. Global hypokinesis d. Dilated left ventricle e. Left ventricular hypertrophy - answer>>>a
Patients with Chagas Disease might develop which type of cardiomyopathy? a. Hypertrophic b. Ischemic c. Infiltrative d. Congestive e. Restrictive - answer>>>d
Another echocardiographic term for systolic, high velocity and late peaking jet in the left ventricular outflow tract by continuous wave Doppler is: a. Dagger shaped b. Elliptical shape c. Rounded shape d. Classic shape - answer>>>a
Patients with IHSS and a high resting outflow gradient may be offered which of the following treatments? a. Lipitor medical therapy b. Contrast septal ablation c. Surgical septal myectomy d. Sublingual nitroglycerin - answer>>>c
M-mode findings in a patient with idiopathic hypertophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) might include all of the following except: a. Mid-systolic closure of the aortic valve b. Systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve
c. Asymmetric septal hypertrophy d. Mitral valve prolapse - answer>>>d
All the following Doppler findings in patients with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) except: a. Outflow gradient that increases with Valsalva maneuver b. Increased A-to-E ratio on mitral inflow c. Subaortic turbulence by color flow d. Outflow gradient that decreases with a Valsalva Maneuver e. Late peaking systolic spectral trace - answer>>>a
Patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy usually have an ejection fraction in the range of: a. 40-55% b. 10-20% c. 25-35% d. 50-65% e. 70-80% - answer>>>e
What is the proper technique for Dopplering the pulmonary venous inflow looking for diastolic dysfunction. a. Apical 4ch, pulsed Doppler, 1-2 cm in the pulmonary vein b. Apical 2 ch, color Doppler, 1-2 cm in the pulmonary vein c. Apical 4 ch, color Doppler, 1-2 cm in the pulmonary vein d. Apical 2 ch, pulsed Doppler, 1-2 cm in the pulmonary vein e. Apical 4 ch, color Doppler, 3cm in the pulmonary vein - answer>>>a
By echocardiographic measurements asymmetric septal hypertrophy is present when the interventricular septum to posterior wall ratio is: a. >1.2: b. <1.2-
d. 40-55% e. 25-35% - answer>>>c
All of the following are etiologies for congestive (dilated) cardiomyopathies except: a. Viral b. Hemochromatosis c. Metabolic d. Ischemic d. Peripartum - answer>>>b
A speckled or ground glass appearance of the left ventricular myocardium by 2D echocardiography is commonly seen in patients with: a. Dilated cardiomyopathy b. Amyloid heart disease c. Ischemic heart disease d. Systemic hypertension - answer>>>b
The ratio of early transmitral (E) to atrial (A) Doppler filling velocities are influenced by all of the following factors Except: a. Delayed left ventricular relaxation b. Patients age c. Transducer frequency d. Left ventricular preload - answer>>>c
Which of the following is an echocardiographic finding in patients with dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM)? a. Exaggerated E-point to septal separation b. Exaggerated aortic root excursion c. Increased mitral valve excursion d. Increased ventricular function
e. B-notch on the M-mode - answer>>>e
A patient presents with a 10 year old ball-cage prosthetic valve in the mitral position with new perivalvular leak. What might be the cause? a. Cardiac tamponade b. Pulmonary hypertension c. Systemic hypertension d. Ring abscess - answer>>>d
Patients with an aortic coarctation commonly have blood pressure in the legs: a. Higher than the right arm b. Equal to the right arm c. Lower than the right arm d. Unable to record - answer>>>c
What type of valve is a St. Jude? a. Bi-disk b. Bioprosthetic c. Pericardial d. One leaflet - answer>>>a
The Majority of organisms attach to the _______die of the atrioventricular valves: a. Ventricular b. Atrial c. Downstream d. Epicardial - answer>>>b
The normal pressure half-time for a mitral prosthetic valve is: a. >280 msec
