Download ardms echo practice test questions updated version and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
1 / 25
ardms echo practice test questions updated
version
- An M-mode of a mitral heterograft valve resembles an M-mode of which valve? a. Mitral b. Pulmonic c. Aortic d. Tricuspid: c
- If a patient has Starr-Edwards valve in both the mitral and aortic positions, mitral regurgitation might be best detected from which window? a. Subcostal b. Left parasternal c. Apical d. Suprasternal: a
- All of the following will cause aortic dilatation EXCEPT a. Marfan's Syndrome b. Systemic hypertension c. Type I dissection d. Pulmonary hypertension: d
- When using M-mode to interrogate a Starr-Edwards mitral valve which win-dow could you use? a. Apical b. Suprasternal c. Parasternal d. Subcostal: a
- All of the following are etiologies for valvular endocarditis EXCEPT:
2 / 25 a. Marantic b. Pulmonary hypertension c. IV drug abuse d. Post cardiac surgery: b
- In endocarditis the vegetations usually attach on: a. Abnormal leaflets only b. The down-stream side of the valve c. The flow side of the valve d. Only one leaflet: c
- All of the following are examples of mechanical cardiac valves EXCEPT: a. Bjork-Shiley tilting disk b. Hancock c. Starr-Edwards ball valve d. St. Jude bi-leaflet: b
- Patients with Marfan syndrome often die from: a. Endocarditis b. Aortic regurgitation c. Aortic dissection d. Mitral valve prolapse: c
- All of the following are different types of endocarditis except: a. Aosinophilic b. Marantic c. Dressler's d. Libman-Sachs: c
- When using Doppler to interrogate a Starr-Edwards mitral valve which window would you use? a. Parasternal b. Apical c. Subcostal d. Suprasternal: b
- Low risk patients for infective endocarditis include those with:
4 / 25 c. Left anterior descending d. Left circumflex: c
- All of the following are frequencies used in adult chest wall echocardio-grams EXCEPT: a. 3.5 MHz b. 2.5 MHz c. 4.5 MHz d. 6.0 MHz e. 2.0 MHz: d
- How do you position a patient for a TEE Exam? a. Supine b. Left lateral decubitus c. Supine with elevated head d. Trendelenburg: b
- Which cardiac valve lies closest to the apex of the heart? a. Tricuspid b. Mitral c. Pulmonic d. Aortic: a
- Which of the following has the most impact on color Doppler jet size? a. Wall filter b. Doppler gain c. TGC gain d. Frame rate: b
- When using PEDOF continuous wave Doppler probe, the cardiac sonogra-pher must rely on the: a. Valve that is visualized on the screen b. Placement of the cursor on the 2D image c. Spectral display in comparison to the EKG d. Size of the Doppler gate: c
- Externally where is the left anterior descending coronary artery found?
5 / 25 a. Anterior interventricular sulcus b. Posterior interventricular sulcus c. Anterior coronary sinus d. Atrioventricular sulcus: a
- A prominent Eustachian valve is seen in the right atrium, the Eustachian valve is: a. A portion of the atrial septum which is patent before birth and does not fuse after delivery b. Normal valve of the superior vena cava commonly seen in the subcostal view c. A normal valve of the inferior vena cava commonly seen in the subcostal view d. A normal valve of the coronary sinus seen in a parasternal short axis: c
- Which embryonic aortic arch develops into the transverse arch" a. First b. Fifth c. Third d. Fourth e. Second: d
- From the left parasternal position which of the following are you most likely to get accurate velocity measurements? a. Pulmonary artery b. Aortic stenosis c. Left ventricular outflow tract d. Mitral regurgitation: a
- The first heart sound involves the: a. Atrioventricular valves b. Tricuspid and pulmonic valve c. Mitral and aortic valves d. Bicuspid valves
7 / 25
- The major development of the heart is complete by the end of week: a. Ten b. Four c. Seven d. Three: c
- Patients develop Eisenmenger's syndrome because: a. They have a ventricular septal defect b. Pulmonary pressures now exceed systemic c. Systemic pressures now exceed pulmonary d. Tricuspid regurgitation is now severe: b
- The hemodynamic effect of an atrial septal defect depends on all of the following EXCEPT: a. Degree of aortic regurgitation b. Response of the pulmonary vascular bed c. Compliance of the ventricles d. Size and direction of the shunt: a
- The most common form of cyanotic congenital heart disease is: a. Coarctation of the aorta b. Tetralogy of Fallot c. Pulmonary stenosis d. Atrial septal defects: b
- Which of the following statements are true about tetralogy of fallot de-fects? a. Has an atrial septal defect b. Pulmonary stenosis is valvular c. VSD with R to L shunting d. Made up of five defects: c
- If a large patent ductus arteriosus is not corrected what might develop? a. Pericardial effusion b. Eisenmenger syndrome
8 / 25 c. Pulmonary hypertension d. Pulmonary edema: b
- The two most frequently encountered congenital heart lesions diagnosed in adults are: a. VAS and Bicuspid Aortic Valve b. ASD and PDA c. ASD and VSD d. ASD and Bicuspid aortic valve: d
- Peripheral (saline) contrast normally appears in which cardiac chamber first? a. Left atrium b. Left ventricle c. Right ventricle d. Right atrium: d
- A dilated pulmonary artery, severe tricuspid regurgitation and RV enlarge-ment best describes? a. Mitral regurgitation b. Pulmonary emboli c. Pulmonary hypertension d. Myocardial infarction: c
- All of the following are echo findings for pulmonary hypertension EXCEPT: a. Dilated right ventricle b. Dilated left atrium c. Flattening of the interventricular septum d. Right ventricular hypertrophy: b
- Patients with Ebstein's anomaly often have an associated congenital abnor-mality. Which is the most common one? a. Primum atrial septal defect b. Secundum atrial septal defect c. Perimembanous ventricular septal defect d. Membranous ventricular septal defect: b
10 / 25 b. A VSD c. An ASD d. A patent foramen ovale: a
- All of the following are indications for a stress echo EXCEPT: a. Aid in the diagnosis of chest pain b. Evaluate cardiac arrhythmias c. Guide post MI rehab d. Increase in revenue compared to nuclear studies: d
- The treatment of choice for constrictive pericarditis is: a. Pericardiectomy b. Pericardiocentesis c. Cardiac transplantation d. Pericardial tap: a
- What might be the first indication of metastatic cardiac stress disease? a. Myxoma b. Right atrial mass c. Pericardial effusion d. Left atrial mass: c
- One of the most common complications of myocardial infarction is: a. Mitral valve rupture b. Aneurysm formation c. Outflow tract obstruction d. Aortic insufficiency: b
- In the majority of human hearts the posterior descending artery is a branch of which coronary artery? a. Anterior descending b. Right c. Circumflex d. Left: b
- A 52 year old woman develops a systolic murmur after a myocardial infarc-tion. What is the most likely etiology?
11 / 25 a. Ruptured papillary muscle b. Pseudoaneurysm c. Pericarditis d. Ventricular septal defect: d
- The lateral ventricular wall of the apical 4 chamber view is fed by which coronary artery a. Left first marginal b. Right coronary artery c. Left circumflex d. Left anterior descending: c
- Children with tuberous sclerosis complex (TSC) develop what type of cardiac tumors? a. Rhabdomyomas b. Rhabdomyosarcomas c. Right atrial myxomas d. Left atrial myxomas: a
13 / 25 c. Right coronary d. Left main coronary: c
14 / 25
- During a stress echocardiogram only one of these left ventricular segments can be seen in the apical two chamber view: a. Apical-septal b. Basal-septal c. Mid-anteroseptal d. Mid-anterior: d
- What would you look for in a patient with Kawasaki disease? a. Dilated cardiomyopathy b. Coronary artery aneurysms c. Left atrial mass d. Atrial septal defect e. Pericardial effusion: b
- When performing an echocardiogram on a patient with known heart failure you should pay particular attention on all of the following EXCEPT: a. Diastolic function b. QP/QS evaluation c. Chamber size d. Chamber function: b
- Which of the following is a normal response to stress? a. Increased diastolic cavity b. Decreased heart rate c. Decreased systolic cavity size d. Hypodynamic wall motion e. Systolic wall thinning: c
- A pericardial effusion can often be seen in patients with: a. Renal failure b. Aortic stenosis c. Atrial flutter d. Myocardial infarction: a
- In patients with the combination of aortic stenosis and atrial fibrillation, peak systolic aortic velocity will be:
16 / 25 b. Lower following long R-R intervals c. Higher following short R-R intervals d. Higher following Long R-R intervals: d
- All of the following are findings in patients with congestive (dilated) car-diomyopathy except: a. Increased aortic root excursion b. Reduced mitral valve excursion c. Global hypokinesis d. Dilated left ventricle e. Left ventricular hypertrophy: a
- Patients with Chagas Disease might develop which type of cardiomyopa-thy? a. Hypertrophic b. Ischemic c. Infiltrative d. Congestive e. Restrictive: d
- Another echocardiographic term for systolic, high velocity and late peaking jet in the left ventricular outflow tract by continuous wave Doppler is: a. Dagger shaped b. Elliptical shape c. Rounded shape d. Classic shape: a
- Patients with IHSS and a high resting outflow gradient may be offered which of the following treatments? a. Lipitor medical therapy b. Contrast septal ablation c. Surgical septal myectomy d. Sublingual nitroglycerin: c
- M-mode findings in a patient with idiopathic hypertophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) might include all of the following
17 / 25 except: a. Mid-systolic closure of the aortic valve
19 / 25 cardiomyopathy have left ventricles that are:
20 / 25 a. Thick and hyperdynamic b. Hypertrophied with normal chamber size c. Dilated and poorly contracting d. Increased shortening fraction and hypertrophy: c
- All of the following might be a physical symptom in patients with congestive (dilated) cardiomyopathy except: a. Sinus tachycardia b. Systemic hypertension c. Fatigue d. Dyspnea e. Edema: b
- Which of the following is a common echocardiographic finding in patients with a restrictive cardiomyopathy? a. Left ventricular dilatation b. Pericardial effusion c. Right ventricular dilatation d. Asymmetric septal hypertrophy e. Normal left atrial size: b
- Patients with congestive cardiomyopathy usually have an ejection fraction in the range of: a. 50-65% b. 70-80% c. 10-20% d. 40-55% e. 25-35%: c
- All of the following are etiologies for congestive (dilated) cardiomyopathies except: a. Viral b. Hemochromatosis c. Metabolic d. Ischemic d. Peripartum: b
