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Aviation Regulations, Flight Preparation, and Engine Performance, Exercises of Aviation

TAFE Queensland Acacia Ridge campus (TAEFQ)Aviation

Various aviation regulations, flight preparation guidelines, and engine performance considerations. It covers topics such as seat belts, safety harnesses, turns onto final approach, VFR aircraft restrictions, ATIS information, runway usage, altimeter settings, engine oil pressure, wake turbulence, flap usage, and wind components. Additionally, it provides performance data for specific airfields and aircraft, as well as questions related to aircraft motion, stall recovery, go-around procedures, and wind shear.

Typology: Exercises

2021/2022

Uploaded on 07/05/2022

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Aviation Theory Centre
Basic Aeronautical Knowledge
Pre-Circuit Solo Practice Exam
1. Seat belts/safety harnesses must be worn, at all stages of flight, by:
1. the pilot when he/she is the sole pilot.
2. the occupants of both control seats.
3. all on board during climb and descent.
4. two children when they occupy a single seat.
2. Civil Aviation Regulations require that turns onto final approach must:
1. commence not below 500ft AGL.
2. be completed not closer than 500 metres from the threshold.
3. be completed not closer than 500 metres from aerodrome
perimeter.
4.
be completed not closer than 500 metres away from any displaced
threshold.
3. A pilot in command shall not consume any alcoholic liquor:
1. 12 hours before the departure of the flight.
2. 24 hours before reporting for duty.
3. 8 hours before reporting for duty.
4. 8 hours before the departure of the flight.
4.
The minimum horizontal distance from cloud for a fixed-wing aircraft,
operating in Class G airspace, is:
1. 1,500 metres.
2. 1,500ft.
3. 1,000ft.
4. clear of cloud.
5. The fuel system in an aircraft must be checked for water contamination:
1. before each flight.
2. before the first flight of the day and after each refuelling.
3. before the first flight of the day and after the last flight of the day.
4. at least once a day.
6. One restriction placed on VFR aircraft, operating at or below 2,000ft, is:
1. minimum horizontal distance from cloud is 2,000 metres.
2. minimum flight visibility is 6 km.
3. navigation must be by visual reference to the ground or
water.
4. minimum vertical distance from cloud is 1,000ft.
7. A student pilot is not permitted to carry passengers unless:
1. he/she has completed 2 hours as pilot in command.
2. he/she has passed the General Flying Progress Test and flies
within the student pilot area limits.
3. he/she has completed 5 hours of cross-country flying.
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Aviation Theory Centre

Basic Aeronautical Knowledge

Pre-Circuit Solo Practice Exam

  1. Seat belts/safety harnesses must be worn, at all stages of flight, by:
    1. the pilot when he/she is the sole pilot.
    2. the occupants of both control seats.
    3. all on board during climb and descent.
    4. two children when they occupy a single seat.
  2. Civil Aviation Regulations require that turns onto final approach must:
    1. commence not below 500ft AGL.
    2. be completed not closer than 500 metres from the threshold.
    3. be completed not closer than 500 metres from aerodrome perimeter.
    4. be completed not closer than 500 metres away from any displaced threshold.
  3. A pilot in command shall not consume any alcoholic liquor:
    1. 12 hours before the departure of the flight.
    2. 24 hours before reporting for duty.
    3. 8 hours before reporting for duty.
    4. 8 hours before the departure of the flight.
  4. The minimum horizontal distance from cloud for a fixed-wing aircraft, operating in Class G airspace, is: 1. 1,500 metres. 2. 1,500ft. 3. 1,000ft. 4. clear of cloud.
  5. The fuel system in an aircraft must be checked for water contamination:
    1. before each flight.
    2. before the first flight of the day and after each refuelling.
    3. before the first flight of the day and after the last flight of the day.
    4. at least once a day.
  6. One restriction placed on VFR aircraft, operating at or below 2,000ft, is:
    1. minimum horizontal distance from cloud is 2,000 metres.
    2. minimum flight visibility is 6 km.
    3. navigation must be by visual reference to the ground or water.
    4. minimum vertical distance from cloud is 1,000ft.
  7. A student pilot is not permitted to carry passengers unless:
    1. he/she has completed 2 hours as pilot in command.
    2. he/she has passed the General Flying Progress Test and flies within the student pilot area limits.
    3. he/she has completed 5 hours of cross-country flying.
  1. he/she has had a dual flight within the last 30 days.
  2. With local QNH set on a subscale, an altimeter will always read:
  3. pressure height.
  4. density height.
  5. height above mean sea level.
  6. height above ground level.
  7. At a non-towered aerodrome, you should not continue an approach beyond the threshold until a preceding light aeroplane, using the same runway has:
  8. landed, and has vacated the runway, irrespective of the run- way length, and is taxiing away.
  9. landed, and is at least 1,800 metres from the landing threshold.
  10. taken off and is at least 200 AGL.
  11. taken off and is at least 600 metres ahead of the landing threshold.
  12. You are to operate from a non-towered aerodrome where there is no ATIS and no other way of knowing the latest QNH. Before take-off, you should:
  13. set the altimeter to read the aerodrome elevation.
  14. set the altimeter to read zero feet.
  15. set an approximate aerodrome pressure in the subscale.
  16. set 1013hPa on the subscale.
  17. One item which must be included in a passenger briefing prior to take-off is:
  18. a demonstration of the correct crash landing position.
  19. the use and location of fire extuingishers.
  20. the use and adjustment of seat belts.
  21. the demonstration of evacuation procedures.
  22. With regard to the rules of the air in CAR, which statement is correct?
  23. An aircraft that is overtaking another aeroplane, has right of way.
  24. If an aeroplane and a glider are approaching head-on at approximately the same height the aeroplane must give way to the glider.
  25. An aircraft that is within 70 degrees of the astern position of an aircraft ahead is considered an overtaking aircraft, if its speed is greater.
  26. An aircraft that is overtaking another aircraft must do so by altering its heading to the left.
  27. On which of the following types of flying is a passenger not permitted to be carried?
  28. An aircraft engaged in aerobatic flying.
  29. Flying training given to a person who has not passed the General Flying Progress Test (GFPT).
  30. An aircraft carrying out formation flying.
  31. An aircraft engaged in search and rescue (SAR) operations.
  32. You are to carry out a flight from Parafield (GAAP) to the training area in a Piper Arrow – XYG. You are also in receipt of ATIS information “Charlie”, indicating Runway 21 Right is being used. Your pre-taxi radiocall will be:
  33. Parafield Ground, X-ray Yankee Golf, Piper Arrow, re-

Aviation Theory Centre

Basic Aeronautical Knowledge

Pre-Area Solo Practice Exam

  1. An aircraft fitted with a piston engine must be fuelled with:
    1. AVTUR fuel.
    2. Unleaded fuel.
    3. Leaded Fuel.
    4. MOGAS.
    5. AVGAS.
  2. What colour is AVGAS 100LL?
    1. Clear or straw colour.
    2. Blue.
    3. Red or purple.
    4. Green.
  3. The carburettor heat can be used as:
    1. an anti-icing action (ice prevention).
    2. a de-icing action (ice removal).
    3. an alternate supply of air to the engine.
    4. all the above.
  4. Should ice form in your carburettor and you have a small reduction in MP, rpm, or airspeed, you should: 1. keep adjusting power by opening the throttle. 2. adjust carburettor heat, full on. 3. use alternate static.
  5. Ice that forms on the engine air filter is known as:
    1. throttle ice.
    2. fuel evaporation ice.
    3. impact ice.
  6. What common action should be taken if impact or throttle icing occurs?
    1. Reduce power.
    2. Increase power.
    3. Apply carburettor heat.
    4. Warm the engine.
  7. After flying for sometime, the centre-zero ammeter shows almost zero (just a small positive indication). This would mean: 1. that the aircraft alternator has failed and the battery is providing all the power. 2. insufficient electrical output is being produced by the alternator. 3. that the battery is being recharged. 4. that the battery is fully charged and the system is working normally.
  8. If the alternator fails, the electrical system will receive its power from
  1. an emergency generator.
  2. the battery.
  3. a wind driven electrical generating device.
  4. Should the alternator fail and the battery power be consumed:
  5. the engine-driven fuel pump would stop working.
  6. the fuel boost pump would still be available.
  7. most of the engine instruments would stop working.
  8. the engine would malfunction.
  9. Excessive priming of an engine for start can:
  10. cause the spark to occur at the incorrect time.
  11. increase the risk of a manifold fire during start.
  12. reduce the amount of fuel available in the manifold.
  13. adversely affect the oil pressure.
  14. Aircraft fuel tanks require a vent, the purpose of which is to:
  15. avoid a build-up of dangerous fumes.
  16. allow condensation inside the tank to escape.
  17. allow the pressure inside the tank to equalise with the out- side pressure.
  18. Aircraft spark plugs may become fouled with a build-up of lead from the fuel, if the engine is operated for any length of time at a:
  19. high power setting with a lean mixture.
  20. low power setting with a lean mixture.
  21. high power setting with a rich mixture.
  22. low power setting with a rich mixture.
  23. If you set the altimeter to QNH, the instrument should read:
  24. zero feet.
  25. density altitude.
  26. pressure altitude.
  27. vertical distance AMSL.
  28. The red radial line on the airspeed indicator represents the:
  29. structural cruising speed.
  30. landing gear lowering speed.
  31. normal operating speed range.
  32. never exceed speed.
  33. Rotation about the longitudinal axis is referred to as:
  34. yawing, and is effected by the rudder.
  35. yawing, and is effected by the ailerons.
  36. rolling, and is effected by the ailerons.
  37. pitching, and is effected by the elevator.
  38. The tendency of an aircraft to return to its original condition when dis- turbed from straight and level flight is known as:
  39. controllability
  40. manoeuvreability.
  41. stability.
  42. balance.
  43. During a climbing turn you must be careful of:
  1. 15 seconds.
  2. 30 seconds.
  3. While taxiing, you notice another aircraft is approaching you on the same taxiway from the opposite direction. Should you:
  4. continue straight ahead and be prepared to stop.
  5. move to the left and stop if necessary.
  6. move to the right and stop if necessary.
  7. stop immediately.
  8. An aircraft will stall:
  9. at a higher speed if power is increased.
  10. at the same indicated airspeed as altitude increases.
  11. when the aircraft’s weight exceeds lift.
  12. at a lower indicated airspeed as altitude decreases.
  13. When considering the hazards of wake turbulence, the wingtip vortices trailing behind large aeroplanes in flight:
  14. will present no hazard when the vortices are encountered in level cruising flight.
  15. will increase in intensity and violence as the speed of the large aero- plane increases.
  16. are most severe when the large aeroplane is at low speed during climbs or approaches for landings.
  17. For proper cooling the engine must have:
  18. the correct mixture setting for that operation.
  19. the correct quantity of oil in the engine.
  20. the correct amount of cooling airflow around the engine.
  21. all of the above.
  22. Detonation occurs in a reciprocating engine when:
  23. a spark plug is fouled and shorts out.
  24. the mixture is too rich.
  25. the charge explodes instead of just burning.
  26. hot spots ignite the mixture too soon.
  27. Although the master switch is off, before leaving an aircraft a pilot mustalso ensure that the magneto switch is off. The reason for this is:
  28. the magneto system is independent of aircraft power and the engine could start if the propeller was turned.
  29. so the key can be removed.
  30. the magneto system will have no earth and cannot be energised.
  31. the battery will not discharge over night.

Aviation Theory Centre

Basic Aeronautical Knowledge

Basic Aeronautical Knowledge Practice Exam

  1. Where the refuelling equipment is not mobile, the Civil Aviation Orders require that an aeroplane being refuelled shall: 1. have no persons on board. 2. have a fire extuingisher on board. 3. have all electrical systems switched off. 4. be so placed that it can rapidly be moved to a place of safety if needed.
  2. An aeroplane’s fuel must be checked for the presence of water:
    1. prior to every flight.
    2. prior to the first flight of the day and at each change of pilots.
    3. prior to the first flight of the day and following each refu- elling.
    4. after each refuelling and/or change of pilots.
  3. Follow an incident, an Air Safety Incident Report shall be submitted:
    1. within 48 hours of the completion of the flight.
    2. within 72 hours of the completion of the incident occurring.
    3. within 24 hours of the completion of the incident occurring.
    4. immediately.
  4. Which of the following would justify the use of a Mayday call?
    1. You need navigational assistance.
    2. You sight a capsized yacht off the coast.
    3. A passenger becomes ill and you need to land for medical assistance.
    4. You have an engine failure on a training flight.
  5. An aeroplane must not fly over a populated area at a height lower than:
    1. 1,500ft AMSL.
    2. 1,000ft on the area QNH.
    3. 1,000ft AGL.
    4. 500ft AGL.
  6. Increasing power when flying straight and level at normal cruise speed will cause: 1. an increase in airspeed and a decrease in drag. 2. an increase in airspeed and an increase in drag. 3. a decrease in airspeed and a decrease in drag. 4. a decrease in airspeed and an increase in drag.
  1. When compared to the stall IAS at 1,000ft, the stall IAS at 10,000ft will:
    1. increase by approximately 40%.
    2. decrease by approximately 40%.
    3. be the same.
    4. vary according to the actual density at 10,000ft.
  2. When in a 30 degree banked level turn, the load factor:
    1. is the same as in straight and level flight.
    2. decreases by a factor of 15%.
    3. will increase to 1.15g.
    4. will be limited by the airspeed.
  3. What are the VMC requirements for a VFR flight conducted in Class G airspace between 3,000ft AMSL (or 1,000ft AGL if higher), and 10,000ft AMSL?
  4. Visibility 5km, clear of cloud.
  5. Visibility 8km, 1,000 metres horizontally from cloud, 1,000ft above or below cloud.
  6. Visibility 5,000 metres, 1,500 metres horizontally from cloud, and 1,000ft vertically from cloud.
  7. Visibility 8,000 metres, clear of cloud.
  8. A cold front is likely to produce:
    1. cumiliform clouds with smooth flying conditions.
    2. stratiform clouds with smooth flying conditions.
    3. cumiliform clouds with turbulent conditions.
    4. stratiform clouds with turbulent flying conditions.
  9. The term INTER on a forecast means that the weather will be:
    1. interminable in nature.
    2. expected to last for at least 60 minutes.
    3. interrupted ever 30 minutes.
    4. expected to last less than 30 minutes.
  10. The cloud base in a TAF is given as a height above:
    1. the 1013.2 hPa level.
    2. the highest ground within 10km of the aerodrome.
    3. mean sea level.
    4. aerodrome level.
  11. The wind direction in the ATIS is given in:
    1. degrees true from the wind direction.
    2. degrees magnetic to the wind direction.
    3. degrees magnetic from the wind direction.
    4. degrees true to the wind direction.
  1. Using your navigation computer, determine the true airspeed (TAS) if you are flying at 120kt IAS, with a temperature of +15 degrees celsius at a pressure altitude of 8,000ft.
    1. 139kt.
    2. 132kt.
    3. 127kt.
    4. 120kt.
  2. If the time in Sydney on 23 March is 0628 EST, what is the UTC time?
    1. 231628 UTC.
    2. 222028 UTC.
    3. 232028 UTC.
    4. 221628 UTC.
  3. The track to your training area is 270 degrees Magnetic. If the wind is from the south and is causing 10 degrees of drift, your heading would be closest to:
    1. 270 degrees True.
    2. 280 degrees Magnetic.
    3. 290 degrees True.
    4. 260 degrees Magnetic.
  4. Magnetic variation is:
    1. the angular difference between magnetic north and compass north.
    2. the direction in which all compass errors occur.
    3. always expressed in degrees, either east or west.
    4. the angular difference between true north and compass north.
  5. A line of longitude on a WAC is:
    1. drawn north-south and represents true north and true south.
    2. drawn east-west and represents magnetic north and magnetic south.
    3. sometimes referred to as in isogonal.
    4. drawn parallel to the next meridian.
  6. On a day when the temperature is 30 degrees and the relative humidity is 30%, carburettor ice:
    1. is unlikely to form.
    2. will form with maximum power set.
    3. is likely to form with normal cruise power set.
    4. is highly likely to form with low power set.
  7. Why do most aeroplane piston engines have dual ignition systems?
    1. For the sole reason of safety in the event of the failure of one magneto.
    2. For safety and for improved combustion.
  1. It requires greater care in throttle handling and is more susceptible to fuel contamination.
  2. Fuel that appears to be uncoloured or a very pale yellow is:
  3. 100LL low-lead AVGAS for piston engines.
  4. 100/130 AVGAS for piston engines.
  5. MOGAS.
  6. AVTUR (kerosene) for turbine engines (i.e. jet or prop-jet engines).
  7. To improve engine cooling during a maximum power climb, you should:
  8. fly at a higher IAS.
  9. fly at a lower IAS.
  10. lean the fuel-air mixture.
  11. apply carburettor heat.
  12. The correct sequence of the various strokes in a four-stroke engine is:
  13. intake, compression, power, exhaust.
  14. intake, exhaust, power, compression.
  15. intake, power, compression, exhaust.
  16. intake, power, exhaust, compression.
  17. Which statement concerning carburettor ice do you consider most accurate?
  18. Carburettor ice is most likely to form when the air tem- perature is in the range -10 degrees celsius to +20 degrees celsius with visible moisture or high humidity.
  19. The carburettor heater is a de-icing device that heats the air after it leaves the carburettor.
  20. Carburettor ice will always form when the temperature is below freezing.
  21. The first indication of carburettor icing in an aeroplane with a fixed- pitch propeller is an increase in rpm.
  22. If the static vent ices over during a descent, the airspeed indicator will then read:
  23. zero.
  24. higher than the actual IAS.
  25. lower than the actual IAS.
  26. correctly.
  27. With battery and generator switches ON, what is the probable reason for a zero reading on a left-zero ammeter?
  28. The battery is fully charged.
  29. The alternator is still charging the battery.
  30. The battery is completely flat.
  31. The alternator has failed.
  1. The pitot-static system supplies pressure for:
    1. the ASI only.
    2. the ASI, artificial horizon and VSI.
    3. the ASI, turn and slip indicator and altimeter.
    4. the ASI, VSI and altimeter.
  2. If you decide to fly when you have a cold or flu, you put yourself at risk of:
    1. being too tired to concentrate.
    2. having balance difficulties and sinus pain.
    3. becoming dehydrated.
    4. developing hypoxia.
  3. Atmospheric pressure variations affect the human body. These pressure changes are:
    1. minimum at low level so we generally don’t need to worry about them.
    2. minimum at high altitude.
    3. maximum at high altitude so we need pressurisation and oxygen supplied.
    4. maximum at low level so we need to understand their ad- verse effects.
  4. Which of the following drugs are considered acceptable for flying?
    1. Antibiotics.
    2. Analgesics.
    3. Antihistamines.
    4. Amphetamines.
    5. None of the above.
  5. If an aeroplane is loaded in such a way that the centre of gravity is outside the forward limit, it will:
    1. be very unstable longitudinally.
    2. have a very short moment arm.
    3. be very unstable about the normal axis.
    4. be very nose heavy and difficult to rotate on take-off.
  6. Along which axis of the aeroplane is the centre of gravity computed?
    1. Lateral.
    2. Normal.
    3. Longitudinal.
    4. All of the above.
  7. An aeroplane must not be operated at a weight in excess of the maximum certificated gross weight because:
    1. structural limitations will be exceeded.
    2. an overloaded aeroplane is excessively stable in flight.
  1. Using Load System Charlie ,

Given: EW 695kg IU 19.788 The student pilot weighs 60kg and the instructor weighs 75kg

The maximum amount of fuel on board that will allow “utility category” operations immediately after take-off is closest to:

  1. 62 litres.
  2. 88 litres.
  3. 100 litres.
  4. 123 litres.
  5. 135 litres.

Given: EW 695kg IU 19.788 The student pilot weighs 60kg and the instructor weighs 75kg Load the aircraft with 95kg weight of baggage and load 170 litres of fuel

The zero fuel weight conditions is closest to:

  1. weight 824kg, arm 2,821mm.
  2. weight 890kg, arm 2,933mm.
  3. weight 932kg, arm 2,960mm.
  4. weight 990kg, arm 3,004mm.
  1. Using Load System Charlie ,