Download BIO 311D – FINAL EXAM REVIEW Comprehensive Practice Examination Questions with Verified An and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
BIO 311D – FINAL EXAM REVIEW
Comprehensive Practice Examination
Questions with Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales
For University of Texas at Austin (UT Austin)
Integrative Biology
DOCUMENT INFORMATION
Feature Details Course BIO 311D – Introductory Biology II Institution University of Texas at Austin (UT Austin) Topics Evolution, Ecology, Animal Physiology, Plant Physiology, Biodiversity Format Multiple Choice with Answers & Rationales Question Count 250+ Target Audience Pre-Med, Biology, Pre-Health Students
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Block Topic Questions
BLOCK 1: EVOLUTION – MECHANISMS & EVIDENCE
- 1 Evolution – Mechanisms & Evidence 1-
- 2 Population Genetics & Hardy-Weinberg 26-
- 3 Speciation & Phylogenetics 46-
- 4 Ecology – Populations & Communities 66-
- 5 Ecology – Ecosystems & Biogeochemical Cycles 86-
- 6 Animal Physiology – Nervous & Endocrine 101-
- 7 Animal Physiology – Circulatory & Respiratory 121-
- 8 Animal Physiology – Osmoregulation & Digestion 141-
- 9 Plant Physiology – Transport & Nutrition 156-
- 10 Plant Physiology – Reproduction & Hormones 171-
- 11 Biodiversity – Prokaryotes & Protists 186-
- 12 Biodiversity – Fungi, Plants, Animals 201-
- 13 Conservation Biology & Climate Change 221-
- 14 Comprehensive Review & Final Practice 236-
D) Artificial selection Answer: B Rationale: Adaptive radiation is the rapid diversification of a common ancestor into species with different ecological niches. Darwin's finches diversified from a common ancestor. Q4. Homologous structures are evidence of: A) Convergent evolution B) Common ancestry C) Analogous structures D) Artificial selection Answer: B Rationale: Homologous structures (e.g., forelimbs of mammals) share a common embryonic origin and indicate common ancestry. Q5. Analogous structures (e.g., wings of birds and insects) are evidence of: A) Common ancestry B) Convergent evolution C) Divergent evolution D) Vestigial structures Answer: B Rationale: Analogous structures evolve independently in different lineages facing similar environmental pressures (convergent evolution).
Q6. Vestigial structures (e.g., human appendix, whale pelvic bones) are evidence of evolution because they: A) Have no function but resemble functional structures in ancestors B) Are newly evolved structures C) Prove intelligent design D) Are only found in fossils Answer: A Rationale: Vestigial structures are remnants of organs that had a function in ancestors but are reduced or non-functional in current species. Q7. The fossil record provides evidence for evolution because: A) All fossils are of extinct species B) Transitional forms are found linking different groups C) Fossils are found only in sedimentary rock D) All fossils are of the same age Answer: B Rationale: Transitional fossils (e.g., Tiktaalik, Archaeopteryx) show intermediate characteristics between ancestral and descendant groups. Q8. Which of the following statements about natural selection is TRUE? A) Natural selection acts on individuals, but evolution occurs in populations B) Natural selection acts on populations, and evolution occurs in individuals C) Both natural selection and evolution occur in individuals D) Both occur only in populations Answer: A
Q11. Which type of selection favors one extreme phenotype? A) Directional selection B) Disruptive selection C) Stabilizing selection D) Sexual selection Answer: A Rationale: Directional selection shifts the population mean toward one extreme (e.g., antibiotic resistance, beak size during drought). Q12. Which type of selection favors both extreme phenotypes, leading to bimodal distribution? A) Directional selection B) Disruptive selection C) Stabilizing selection D) Sexual selection Answer: B Rationale: Disruptive selection favors both extremes and may lead to speciation. Q13. Sexual selection is a form of natural selection that: A) Increases survival B) Increases mating success C) Decreases genetic variation D) Only affects males Answer: B
Rationale: Sexual selection favors traits that increase mating success, even if they reduce survival. Q14. Intrasexual selection involves: A) Competition between members of the same sex for mates B) Mate choice (female choice) C) Competition between different species D) Both A and B (depends on definition) Answer: A Rationale: Intrasexual selection (male-male competition) favors traits useful in combat. Intersexual selection (mate choice) favors attractive traits. Q15. Intersexual selection involves: A) Competition between males B) Mate choice (typically females choosing males) C) Both males and females competing D) No competition Answer: B Rationale: Intersexual selection is mate choice (e.g., peahens choosing peacocks with elaborate tails). Q16. Which scientist proposed the theory of evolution by natural selection concurrently with Darwin?
Q19. Which of the following is an example of convergent evolution? A) Bat wings and bird wings B) Human arm and whale flipper C) Marsupial and placental mammals (e.g., thylacine and wolf) D) Both A and C Answer: D Rationale: Bat wings and bird wings (both for flight) and marsupial/placental analogs are examples of convergent evolution. Q20. Which of the following is an example of divergent evolution? A) Darwin's finches B) Analogous structures C) Convergent evolution D) Mimicry in butterflies Answer: A Rationale: Divergent evolution occurs when related species become more different over time (adaptive radiation). Q21. The concept that "ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny" (embryonic development reflects evolutionary history): A) Is completely accurate B) Is partially true; embryonic similarities reflect common ancestry C) Has been fully disproven
D) Only applies to vertebrates Answer: B Rationale: Embryonic similarities (pharyngeal pouches, tails) reflect common ancestry, but embryos do not exactly replay evolutionary history. Q22. Evidence for common ancestry includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) Homologous structures B) Analogous structures (evidence of convergent evolution, not common ancestry) C) DNA sequence similarity D) Vestigial structures Answer: B Rationale: Analogous structures result from convergent evolution, not common ancestry. Q23. In the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium equation (p² + 2pq + q² = 1), p represents: A) Frequency of the dominant allele B) Frequency of the recessive allele C) Frequency of homozygous dominant genotype D) Frequency of homozygous recessive genotype Answer: A Rationale: p = frequency of dominant allele; q = frequency of recessive allele; p² = homozygous dominant; 2pq = heterozygous; q² = homozygous recessive.
B) No natural selection C) Large population size D) Non-random mating Answer: D Rationale: Hardy-Weinberg assumptions: no mutation, no selection, large population, no gene flow, and random mating. Q27. If a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for a gene with two alleles (A and a), and the frequency of A (p) is 0.7, the frequency of heterozygous individuals is: A) 0. B) 0. C) 0. D) 0. Answer: C Rationale: q = 1 - p = 0.3; 2pq = 2 × 0.7 × 0.3 = 0.42. Q28. If the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype (q²) is 0.16, what is the frequency of the dominant allele (p)? A) 0. B) 0. C) 0. D) 0. Answer: C Rationale: q = √0.16 = 0.4; p = 1 - q = 0.6.
Q29. The founder effect occurs when: A) A small population colonizes a new area, leading to reduced genetic diversity B) A large population experiences a bottleneck C) Individuals migrate between populations D) Mutation rates increase Answer: A Rationale: The founder effect is a type of genetic drift where a small group establishes a new population. Q30. A population bottleneck is a sudden reduction in population size that: A) Increases genetic diversity B) Decreases genetic diversity through genetic drift C) Always leads to extinction D) Only affects dominant alleles Answer: B Rationale: Bottlenecks reduce genetic variation by chance, affecting all alleles. Q31. Genetic drift has the greatest effect on: A) Large populations B) Small populations C) Populations with high gene flow
Q34. Sympatric speciation is more common in: A) Animals B) Plants (due to polyploidy) C) Birds D) Mammals Answer: B Rationale: Polyploidy (chromosome doubling) can create immediate reproductive isolation in plants. Q35. Prezygotic isolating mechanisms prevent: A) Fertilization from occurring B) Hybrids from surviving C) Hybrids from reproducing D) Gene flow after mating Answer: A Rationale: Prezygotic barriers (habitat, temporal, behavioral, mechanical, gametic) prevent fertilization. Q36. Postzygotic isolating mechanisms include: A) Hybrid inviability or sterility B) Habitat isolation C) Temporal isolation D) Mechanical isolation Answer: A Rationale: Postzygotic barriers act after fertilization (e.g., mules are sterile).
Q37. A mule (offspring of a horse and donkey) is an example of: A) Prezygotic isolation B) Hybrid sterility (postzygotic) C) Habitat isolation D) Behavioral isolation Answer: B Rationale: Mules are vigorous but sterile, a postzygotic barrier. Q38. Phylogenetic trees (cladograms) are constructed based on: A) Shared derived characteristics (synapomorphies) B) Shared ancestral characteristics (symplesiomorphies) C) Analogous structures D) Convergent evolution Answer: A Rationale: Cladistics uses shared derived traits (synapomorphies) to infer evolutionary relationships. Q39. A monophyletic group (clade) includes: A) A common ancestor and all its descendants B) A common ancestor but not all descendants C) Unrelated organisms D) Only one species
Q42. Phylogenetic analysis of DNA sequences is more accurate than morphological analysis because: A) DNA evolves at a constant rate B) DNA provides more independent characters C) Morphology is not heritable D) DNA cannot be compared across species Answer: B Rationale: DNA sequences provide thousands of characters; morphology provides fewer characters. Q43. A paraphyletic group includes: A) A common ancestor and all descendants B) A common ancestor but not all descendants C) Unrelated organisms D) Only extant species Answer: B Rationale: Paraphyletic groups (e.g., "reptiles" excluding birds) are not recognized in cladistics. Q44. Which type of speciation occurs without geographic isolation? A) Allopatric speciation B) Sympatric speciation C) Peripatric speciation D) Parapatric speciation Answer: B
Rationale: Sympatric speciation occurs within a population that shares the same geographic range. Polyploidy is a common mechanism. Q45. Peripatric speciation is a type of: A) Sympatric speciation B) Allopatric speciation (founder effect) C) Parapatric speciation D) Hybrid speciation Answer: B Rationale: Peripatric speciation involves a small population isolated at the edge of a larger population (founder effect).
BLOCK 3: SPECIATION & PHYLOGENETICS
(Questions 46-65)
Q46. A clade is defined as: A) A group of species with similar morphology B) A monophyletic group (ancestor and all descendants) C) A group of species with convergent evolution D) A group of species with analogous structures Answer: B Rationale: Clades are monophyletic evolutionary units.
