BOC (MLS) Practice Questions revised version newest version, Exams of Nursing

BOC (MLS) Practice Questions revised version newest version

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2025/2026

Available from 03/12/2026

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BOC (MLS) Practice Questions revised version
newest version
1. Propionibacterium acnes is most often associated with:
A.
food poisoning
B. post-antibiotic diarrhea
C.
tooth decay
D.blood culture contamination: D
2.
A group A, Rh-positive infant of a group O, Rh-positive mother
has a weakly positive direct antiglobulin test and a moderately
elevated bilirubin 12 hours after birth. The most likely cause is:
A. ABO incompatibility
B. Rh incompatibility
C.
blood group incompatibility due to an antibody to a low
frequency antigen
D. neonatal jaundice not associated with blood group: A
3. D-dimers are produced from:
A.crosslinked and stabilized fibrin clots
B.decreased fibrinogen and platelets
C.plasminogen being converted to plasmin
D.generation of thrombin from endothelial
cells:
A
4.
A method to culture Acanthamoeba sp from corneal ulcer
scrapings is to inoculate:
A. McCoy cells
B. Novy, MacNeal and Nicolle (NNN)
medium C.an agar plate overlaid with
Escherichia coli D.Regan-Lowe medium:
C
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19
pf1a
pf1b
pf1c
pf1d
pf1e
pf1f
pf20
pf21
pf22
pf23
pf24
pf25
pf26
pf27
pf28
pf29
pf2a
pf2b
pf2c
pf2d
pf2e
pf2f
pf30
pf31
pf32
pf33

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BOC (MLS) Practice Questions revised version

newest version

  1. Propionibacterium acnes is most often associated with: A. food poisoning B. post-antibiotic diarrhea C. tooth decay D. blood culture contamination: D
  2. A group A, Rh-positive infant of a group O, Rh-positive mother has a weakly positive direct antiglobulin test and a moderately elevated bilirubin 12 hours after birth. The most likely cause is: A. ABO incompatibility B. Rh incompatibility C. blood group incompatibility due to an antibody to a low frequency antigen D. neonatal jaundice not associated with blood group: A
  3. D-dimers are produced from: A.crosslinked and stabilized fibrin clots B.decreased fibrinogen and platelets C.plasminogen being converted to plasmin D.generation of thrombin from endothelial cells: A
  4. A method to culture Acanthamoeba sp from corneal ulcer scrapings is to inoculate: A. McCoy cells B. Novy, MacNeal and Nicolle (NNN) medium C.an agar plate overlaid with Escherichia coli D.Regan-Lowe medium: C

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  1. Which of the following is the best indicator of an acute infection with the hepatitis A virus? A. the presence of IgG antibodies to hepatitis A virus B. the presence of IgM antibodies to hepatitis A virus C. a sharp decline in the level of IgG antibodies to hepatitis A virus D. a rise in both IgM and IgG levels of antibody to hepatitis A virus: B
  2. If this urine specimen was stored uncapped at 5°C without preservation and retested at 2:00 pm, which of the following test results would be changed due to these storage conditions? A.glucos e B.ketone s C.protein D.nitrite: B
  3. Which of the following statements about fluorometry is true? A.a compound fluoresces when it absorbs light at 1 wavelength and emits light at a second wavelength B.the detector in a fluorometer is positioned at 180° from the excitation source C.fluorometry is less sensitive than spectrophotometry D.an incandescent lamp is commonly used in a fluorometer: A
  4. This parasite has the following characteristics: stains red with acid-fast stain, zoonotic transfer to humans, spread by fecal-oral route. The most likely organism is: A.Cryptosporidiu m B.Giardia C.Naegleria D.Necator: A
  5. To prevent graft-vs-host disease, Red Blood Cells prepared for

4 / 51 fermentative motility: negative MacConkey agar: no growth Which of the following is the most likely organism? A.Pseudomonas aeruginosa B.Pasteurella multocida C.Aeromonas hydrophila D.Vibrio cholerae: B

  1. What specimen preparation is used to perform the alkaline phosphatase isoenzyme determination? A. serum is divided into 2 aliquots, one is frozen and the other is refrigerated B. serum is divided into 2 aliquots, one is heated at 56°C and the other is unheated C. no preparation is necessary since the assay uses EDTA plasma D.protein-free filtrate is prepared first: B
  2. Gram stain examination from a blood culture bottle shows dark blue, spher- ical organisms in clusters. Growth on sheep blood agar shows small, round, pale yellow colonies. Further tests should include: A. catalase production and agglutination test for Protein A B.bacitracin susceptibility and latex grouping C. oxidase and indole reactions D. Voges-Proskauer and methyl red reactions: A
  3. Inclusions in the cytoplasm of neutrophils as shown in the figure below are known as: A.Auer bodies B.Howell-Jolly bodies C.Heinz bodies D.Döhle

5 / 51 bodies: D

  1. What term best describes the relatedness of sequences, the percent identity or conservation? A. domain B.homology C.motif D.similarity: D
  2. The most common form (95%) of congenital adrenal hyperplasia is 21-hy- droxylase deficiency, which is detected by elevated plasma: A. cortisol B.aldostero ne C.17-OH- progesterone D.11- deoxycortisol: C 95% of congenital adrenal hyperplasia is associated with a deficiency of 21-hydoxylase. Increased 17- OH progesterone is seen if measured by the laboratory. Cortisol and 11-deoxycortisol are increased in Cushing's disease, and require 17-hydroxylase to be produced. Aldosterone is increased in congenital adrenal hyperplasia caused by 17-hydroxylase deficiency.
  3. An antibiotic that inhibits cell wall synthesis is: A.chloramphenicol B.colistin C.penicillin D.sulfamethoxazole: C Penicillin inhibits penicillin binding proteins that are essential to peptidoglycan (cell wall) synthesis. Penicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic. All beta-lactam antibiotics inhibit cell wall synthesis. Chloramphenicol inhibits protein synthesis, colistin increases cell membrane permeability, and sulfamethoxazole inhibits folate metabolism.

7 / 51 Dysfibrinogenemia is caused by a structurally abnormal fibrinogen. The diagnosis is confirmed by demonstrating a low fibrinogen activity to fibrinogen antigen ratio as well as an elevated thrombin time and a prolonged reptilase time.

  1. A 6-year-old male presents to his pediatrician with a severe case of tonsillitis. The physician collects a throat swab specimen and orders a GAS (Group A Streptococcus) probe test. The following day the probe comes back negative. A culture is requested. The following results are obtained: catalase: negative bacitracin disk: sensitive hippurate hydrolysis: negative CAMP test: negative PYR: negative Gram stain: Gram-positive cocci in chains Which of the following organisms is most likely causing the tonsillitis? A. group A beta-hemolytic streptococci B. group B beta-hemolytic streptococci C. group C beta-hemolytic streptococci D. group D beta-hemolytic streptococci: C Group C beta-hemolytic streptococci are considered normal flora of the nasopharynx. This organism has been found to cause infections similar to S. pyogenes and S. agalactiae. Group C beta-hemolytic streptococci are also sensitive to bacitracin disk making this particular test no longer definitive for the identification of Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci.

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  1. Most of the carbon dioxide present in blood is in the form of: A.dissolved CO B.carbonate C.bicarbonate ion D.carbonic acid: C
  2. Alkaline urine showed this microscopic finding: The laboratorian should: A. dilute with saline B. request a new sample C. culture for bacteria D. dissolve with acetic acid: D The crystals are amorphous phosphates. These can be dissolved in dilute acetic acid, in order to view other formed elements that are obscured.
  3. Antibiotics routinely tested and reported for Pseudomonas aeruginosa iso- lates include: A. clindamyci n B.erythromyci n C.gentamicin D.penicillin: C Aminoglycoside antibiotics such as gentamicin are active against Pseudomonas and routinely tested and reported on these isolates. Penicillin, erythromycin, and clindamycin are not active against Pseudomonas.
  4. A patient with renal tubular acidosis would most likely excrete a urine with a: A. low pH B. high pH

10 / 51 produce an acid urine are easily reabsorbed. To remove them, tubular secretion of the ions, combined with ammonium ions produced in the proximal and distal convoluted tubules, is needed.

  1. A red blood cell about 5 μm in diameter that stains bright red and shows no central pallor is a: A.spherocyte B.leptocyte C.microcyte D.macrocyte: A
  2. Based on the results below, what is the next step in determination of the patient's ABO/Rh type? anti-A: 4+ anti-B: 4+ anti-D: 4+ A1 cells: 0 B cells: 0 A.interpret at AB, D- positive B.interpret at AsubB, D-positive C.repeat ABO red cell typing and include a control D.add room temperature incubation with ABO red cell typing: C When results with anti-A, anti-B and anti-D are all positive, there is no way to determine the accuracy of the results. Repeat testing with an inert control, verified as negative, is the only way to confirm the accuracy of these results.
  3. In a Group O individual with Le and Se genes, what ABH and Lewis antigens are present in their secretions? A.Lea, Leb B.Lea, Leb, H C.Lea, H D.Leb, H: B

11 / 51 When the genes Le and Se are inherited in a group O individual, Lea, Leb, and H soluble antigens will be in the secretions. Leb will be expressed on the red cells.

  1. A requirement for a job is to be able to stand for long periods of time. If you have a current employee who comes to work with a doctor's letter stating that they can no longer stand to do their job due to a disability, what is the manager's responsibility? A. find the employee a desk job B. make a reasonable accommodation for them to alternate sitting and stand- ing if possible C. you are not legally required to do anything D. let the employee go: B An employer is required to make reasonable accommodations unless it creates an undue hardship (financially or logistically) to the business.
  2. Which one of the following viruses is responsible for the most common congenital infection in the United States? A. VZ V B.CM V C.EBV D.adenovirus: B CMV (Cytomegalovirus): Passed transplacentally, the risk of in utero infection is greatest when the mother acquires a primary CMV infection while pregnant. The ettects from in utero infection can range from severe to mild.
  3. The transport temperature for Red Blood Cells Leukocytes Reduced is: A.1-6°C B.1-10°C C.18-20°C D.20-24°C: B

13 / 51 A. Health Level 7 B. ISBT 128 C.FTP D.SNOMED: A Health Level 7 (HL-7) is the organization that specifies requirements for electronic data transmission formatting. It is considered to be the industry standard.

  1. A technician is asked to clean out the chemical reagent storeroom and discard any reagents not used in the past 5 years. How should the technician proceed? A. discard chemicals into biohazard containers where they will later be auto- claved B. pour reagents down the drain, followed by flushing of water C. consult SDS sheets for proper disposal D. pack all chemicals for incineration: C MSDS is an OSHA required document that provides information such as physical data (melting point, boiling point, flash point etc), toxicity, health ettects, first aid, reactivity, storage, disposal, protective equipment, and spill/leak procedures.
  2. The following results were obtained: WBC: 5.0x10^9/L RBC 1.7x10^12/L MCV: 84 fL Plt: 89x10^9/L Philidelphia chromosome: negative BCR/ABL fusion gene: negative Segmented neutrophils: 16% Bands: 22%

14 / 51 Lymphocytes: 28% Monocytes: 16% Eosinophils: 1%

16 / 51 urogenital tract of men and women. It is one of the most common STDs worldwide.

  1. The following blood typing results were noted on a patient's sample:

17 / 51 anti-A: 0 anti-B: 4+ anti-D: 4+ A1 cells: 4+ B cells: 0 Rh typing results: C-E-c+e+ What is the patient's likely ethnicity? A.Asian B.Hispanic C.Black D.White: C 20% percent of persons of African ethnicity are Group B compared to only 11% of those of European ethnicity. For the Rh phenotype results, 44% of blacks compared to 4% of whites will demonstrate the Dce phenotype.

  1. Which nematode produces eggs with characteristic hyaline polar plugs at each end? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Necator americanus C.Strongyloides stercoralis D.Trichuris trichiura: D Trichuris, the whipworm, produces barrel-shaped eggs that have"plugs" or thickenings on each end. It may co-infect with Ascaris.
  2. Which of the following is an organ-specific autoimmune disease? A.myasthenia gravis B.rheumatoid arthritis C.Addison disease D.progressive systemic sclerosis: C Addison disease has antibodies circulating to adrenal antigens.

19 / 51 Hewitt broth with colistin and nalidixic acid). The use of vaginal/rectal swabs and selective broth medium greatly increases the recovery of GBS. Trans Vag broth or StrepB Carrot broth can also be used.

  1. A false-negative direct antiglobulin test can be the result of: A.neutralized AHG reagent B.sample from gel-separator tubes C.overcentrifugation

20 / 51 D.dirty glassware: A Neutralized AHG reagent, no longer able to bind to IgG immunoglobulin, can result in a false-negative test result.

  1. Auto-verification of test results requires all of the following to be established by the laboratory except: A. patient results entered into the LIS via an instrument interface B. patient results evaluated based on validated rules defined in the LIS C.successful quality control testing obtained prior to releasing patient results D.review of results by a qualified technologist or technician: D Patient results can be automatically released to the patient record as long as they meet selected criteria defined and validated by the users. Auto-verification does not apply to manually entered results and results cannot be released unless QC has been performed and was within limits prior to releasing.
  2. A donor is tested with Rh antisera with the following results: anti-D:
  • anti- C: + anti-E: 0 anti- c: + anti-e:

Rh control: 0 What is his most probable Rh genotype? A.R1R B.R1r C.R0r D.R2r: B