Download CAFS Research Methods Ultimate Exam and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!
Ultimate Exam
Question 1. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of research in the social sciences? A) To prove a predetermined theory B) To generate new knowledge or deepen understanding C) To collect data for administrative reports D) To replicate existing studies exactly Answer: B Explanation: The core aim of social-science research is to advance knowledge or increase understanding of phenomena, not merely to confirm pre-existing ideas or produce routine reports. Question 2. A research question differs from a hypothesis in that a question is: A) Testable with statistical analysis B) A broad inquiry that seeks explanation rather than prediction C) Always quantitative in nature D) Formulated after data collection Answer: B Explanation: A research question sets the focus of the study and asks “what” or “why,” whereas a hypothesis makes a specific, testable prediction. Question 3. In sampling, which technique gives each member of the population an equal chance of selection? A) Stratified sampling B) Convenience sampling C) Random sampling D) Cluster sampling Answer: C
Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Random sampling ensures equal probability of selection for every individual, minimizing selection bias. Question 4. When a researcher selects every 5th name from an alphabetical list, which sampling method is being used? A) Systematic sampling B) Stratified sampling C) Simple random sampling D) Purposive sampling Answer: A Explanation: Systematic sampling involves choosing participants at regular intervals (every nth case) from an ordered list. Question 5. Which of the following is a disadvantage of convenience sampling? A) It requires complex randomization procedures. B) It often yields a sample that is not representative of the population. C) It is the most time-efficient method for large populations. D) It eliminates sampling error completely. Answer: B Explanation: Convenience samples are easy to obtain but typically suffer from high bias because they do not reflect the broader population. Question 6. Primary data are distinguished from secondary data because primary data are: A) Collected from existing publications. B) Gathered directly from respondents by the researcher. C) Always quantitative in nature. D) Less costly to obtain than secondary data.
Ultimate Exam
D) The ethical compliance of the research design. Answer: B Explanation: Validity assesses whether the tool accurately captures the targeted construct or phenomenon. Question 10. Which of the following ethical principles specifically requires that participants’ identities are protected? A) Integrity B) Respect C) Privacy D) Bias Answer: C Explanation: Privacy mandates confidentiality and anonymity so that participants cannot be identified from the research data. Question 11. Informed consent primarily ensures that participants are: A) Paid for their involvement. B) Fully aware of the study’s purpose, procedures, risks, and benefits before agreeing to take part. C) Able to withdraw at any time without penalty. D) Trained to administer the research instruments. Answer: B Explanation: Informed consent is the process of providing sufficient information so participants can make a voluntary, educated decision to join. Question 12. Which questionnaire design element is most likely to increase response rates?
Ultimate Exam
A) Using only open-ended questions. B) Keeping the survey short and straightforward. C) Requiring participants to write essays. D) Including many technical jargon terms. Answer: B Explanation: Short, clear surveys reduce respondent burden and thus tend to generate higher completion rates. Question 13. Structured interviews are characterized by: A) Free-flowing conversation with no predetermined questions. B) A set of standardized questions that can be easily quantified. C) The use of visual aids and role-playing. D) A focus on deep, narrative data only. Answer: B Explanation: Structured interviews follow a fixed script, allowing responses to be compared across participants and facilitating quantitative analysis. Question 14. An unstructured interview is most appropriate when the researcher wants to: A) Test a specific hypothesis with numeric data. B) Explore participants’ experiences in depth without limiting their responses. C) Ensure each interview lasts exactly the same amount of time. D) Conduct a large-scale survey across many sites. Answer: B Explanation: Unstructured interviews are flexible, encouraging participants to share rich, detailed narratives.
Ultimate Exam
Question 18. Which of the following best describes a research proposal’s “who” component? A) The specific research methods to be used. B) The target population or participants. C) The timeline for data collection. D) The expected outcomes of the study. Answer: B Explanation: The “who” identifies who will be studied—i.e., the sample or population. Question 19. In project management, a Gantt chart is most useful for: A) Analyzing statistical data. B) Visualizing the timeline and dependencies of research tasks. C. Recording participant consent forms. D. Calculating reliability coefficients. Answer: B Explanation: Gantt charts illustrate start and end dates for tasks, helping researchers manage time and resources efficiently. Question 20. When recording data in a project diary, the researcher should: A) Only note successful outcomes. B) Document all decisions, challenges, and reflections throughout the study. C) Write summaries after the study is complete. D) Avoid mentioning any ethical concerns. Answer: B
Ultimate Exam
Explanation: A comprehensive diary captures the research process, decisions, and issues, providing transparency and supporting audit trails. Question 21. Which graph type is most appropriate for displaying the distribution of a single continuous variable? A) Bar chart B) Pie chart C) Histogram D) Line graph Answer: C Explanation: Histograms group continuous data into intervals, showing frequency distribution effectively. Question 22. When presenting categorical data, a researcher would most commonly use: A) Histogram B) Pie chart C) Scatter plot D) Box-and-whisker plot Answer: B Explanation: Pie charts illustrate the proportion of each category within a whole, making them ideal for nominal data. Question 23. Which statistical measure indicates the central tendency that is least affected by extreme scores? A) Mean B) Median C) Mode
Ultimate Exam
C) Census data published by a government agency. D) Laboratory measurements taken during an experiment. Answer: C Explanation: Secondary data are pre-existing records such as government censuses, not collected directly by the researcher. Question 27. The principle of “respect” in research ethics primarily requires the researcher to: A) Manipulate data to achieve desired outcomes. B) Design questions that avoid causing emotional distress or harm. C) Share all raw data publicly without consent. D) Ignore participants’ cultural norms. Answer: B Explanation: Respect involves protecting participants from harm, ensuring questions are appropriate, and honoring cultural sensitivities. Question 28. Which of the following best illustrates researcher bias? A) Randomly assigning participants to groups. B. Using double-blind procedures. C. Interpreting ambiguous responses in a way that confirms the researcher’s expectations. D. Recruiting a sample from multiple geographic locations. Answer: C Explanation: Bias occurs when the researcher’s preconceptions shape data collection or interpretation. Question 29. A stratified sample is most useful when:
Ultimate Exam
A) The population is homogeneous. B) The researcher wants to ensure representation of distinct sub-groups. C) Time and resources are extremely limited. D) The sampling frame is unavailable. Answer: B Explanation: Stratification divides the population into meaningful layers (e.g., age, gender) and draws proportional samples from each, ensuring representation. Question 30. In a mixed-methods study, the researcher: A) Uses only quantitative instruments. B) Uses only qualitative interviews. C) Combines both quantitative and qualitative techniques to answer the research question. D) Alternates between two unrelated studies. Answer: C Explanation: Mixed-methods research integrates numeric data with narrative insights for a more comprehensive understanding. Question 31. Which of the following statements about the “observer effect” is true? A) It only occurs in laboratory settings. B) It can be eliminated completely by using hidden cameras. C) It may cause participants to modify their behavior because they know they are being observed. D) It improves the reliability of observational data. Answer: C
Ultimate Exam
D) A ratio scale. Answer: B Explanation: Likert items produce ordered categories (strongly disagree → strongly agree) that are ordinal. Question 35. Which of the following best describes a “hypothesis” in quantitative research? A) A broad research question that cannot be tested. B) A specific, testable prediction about the relationship between variables. C) A summary of the literature review. D) A statement of ethical considerations. Answer: B Explanation: A hypothesis makes a clear, falsifiable claim that can be examined with data. Question 36. When a researcher conducts a pilot study, the primary goal is to: A) Publish the final results immediately. B) Test and refine data-collection instruments and procedures before the main study. C) Increase the overall sample size. D. Replace the need for a full-scale study. Answer: B Explanation: Pilot testing identifies problems with tools, timing, or logistics, allowing adjustments before full implementation. **Question 37. Which of the following is a key advantage of using secondary data? **
Ultimate Exam
A) Complete control over data collection procedures. B) Ability to explore new variables not previously recorded. C) Cost-effectiveness and time savings. D) Guarantees higher reliability than primary data. Answer: C Explanation: Secondary data are already gathered, reducing the time and expense required for data collection. Question 38. In ethical research, “debriefing” occurs: A) Before participants give consent. B) Immediately after data collection, providing participants with study purpose and any deception used. C) Only when the study is funded by a government agency. D) At the end of the research report, without participant involvement. Answer: B Explanation: Debriefing informs participants about the true nature of the study and addresses any misconceptions, especially after deception. Question 39. A researcher wishes to compare the mean test scores of three independent groups. Which statistical test is most appropriate? A) Paired-samples t-test B) One-way ANOVA C) Chi-square test D) Pearson correlation Answer: B Explanation: One-way ANOVA assesses differences among means of three or more independent groups.
Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Non-participant observers remain detached, minimizing their impact on the natural behavior of subjects. Question 43. Which of the following is an example of a closed-ended question? A) “What do you think about the new policy?” B) “How would you describe your experience?” C) “Do you agree with the statement: ‘The policy improves community health’? (Yes/No)” D) “Tell us about a time you felt unsafe.” Answer: C Explanation: Closed-ended questions provide limited response options, facilitating quantitative analysis. Question 44. The “p-value” in hypothesis testing indicates: A) The probability that the null hypothesis is true. B) The probability of obtaining the observed data (or more extreme) if the null hypothesis is true. C) The effect size of the independent variable. D) The sample size required for the study. Answer: B Explanation: A p-value quantifies how likely the observed results would occur under the null hypothesis; low values suggest statistical significance. Question 45. Which of the following best describes “internal validity”? A) The extent to which study findings can be generalized to other contexts. B) The degree to which the study accurately demonstrates a causal relationship between variables. C) The reliability of the measurement instrument.
Ultimate Exam
D) The ethical soundness of the research design. Answer: B Explanation: Internal validity concerns whether the observed effects are truly due to the manipulated variables, not confounds. Question 46. A researcher wants to ensure that each gender is proportionally represented in the sample. Which sampling technique should they use? A) Simple random sampling B) Stratified sampling C) Cluster sampling D) Convenience sampling Answer: B Explanation: Stratified sampling allows the researcher to divide the population by gender and sample proportionally from each stratum. Question 47. In a study using a 5-point Likert scale, the researcher treats the data as interval level. This is justified because: A) Likert scales are always nominal. B) The distances between points are assumed equal, allowing parametric analysis. C) The scale only has two response options. D) The data are non-numeric. Answer: B Explanation: While technically ordinal, many researchers treat Likert scores as interval when the scale is symmetric and the sample is large, permitting parametric tests. Question 48. Which of the following is a key feature of a “case study” methodology?
Ultimate Exam
Question 51. Which of the following best illustrates “researcher reflexivity”? A) Ignoring personal biases during data analysis. B) Actively reflecting on how one’s background and assumptions may influence the research process and findings. C) Delegating all data coding to a computer program. D) Conducting the study without any prior training. Answer: B Explanation: Reflexivity involves acknowledging and critically examining the researcher’s influence on the study. Question 52. A researcher wants to test whether there is a relationship between two continuous variables. Which statistical test should be used? A) Chi-square test B) Independent-samples t-test C) Pearson correlation coefficient D) Mann-Whitney U test Answer: C Explanation: Pearson’s r measures the strength and direction of linear association between two continuous variables. Question 53. In a survey, a “Likert item” typically asks respondents to: A) Choose a single best answer from many options. B) Rank items in order of preference. C) Indicate their level of agreement or disagreement on a symmetric scale. D) Provide a numeric calculation. Answer: C
Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Likert items assess attitudes by offering a range from “strongly disagree” to “strongly agree.” Question 54. The “principle of integrity” in research ethics primarily addresses: A) The confidentiality of participants. B) The honesty and accuracy of data collection, analysis, and reporting. C) The use of convenient sampling methods. D) The selection of research topics. Answer: B Explanation: Integrity demands truthful representation of methods and findings, prohibiting fabrication or falsification. Question 55. Which of the following is an example of a “secondary source” in a literature review? A) An interview transcript conducted by the researcher. B) A peer-reviewed journal article summarizing previous studies. C) Raw field notes from participant observation. D) A newly designed questionnaire. Answer: B Explanation: Secondary sources synthesize or interpret primary data; a review article fits this description. Question 56. The “principle of respect” requires researchers to obtain: A) Informed consent from participants before data collection. B) A higher budget for the study. C) Permissions from all institutional leaders regardless of relevance. D) A larger sample size than needed.
