Download Cardiovascular Computed Tomography Exam and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!
Exam
Question 1. Which characteristic of X-ray generation primarily influences the spatial resolution in CT imaging? A) Focal spot size B) Beam hardening C) Collimation D) Filtration Answer: A) Focal spot size Explanation: The focal spot size determines the geometric sharpness of the X-ray beam; a smaller focal spot produces higher spatial resolution by reducing geometric unsharpness. Question 2. Which detector technology is most commonly used in modern multidetector CT scanners? A) Photomultiplier tubes B) Indirect conversion detectors C) Solid-state silicon detectors D) Photodiodes with scintillators Answer: D) Photodiodes with scintillators
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Explanation: Modern CT detectors typically use scintillator crystals coupled with photodiodes to convert X-ray photons into electrical signals, enabling high-speed detection. Question 3. Which scan mode is most suitable for dynamic cardiac imaging requiring high temporal resolution? A) Axial mode B) Helical (spiral) mode C) Stationary full-coverage mode D) Dynamic acquisition mode Answer: D) Dynamic acquisition mode Explanation: Dynamic acquisition allows for rapid, repeated imaging over a short period, suitable for capturing fast cardiac motion with high temporal resolution. Question 4. Which image reconstruction technique is most effective in reducing noise while maintaining image quality in low-dose CT scans? A) Filtered back-projection B) Iterative reconstruction
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A) MIP
B) MinIP C) Multiplanar reformat (MPR) D) Surface rendering Answer: C) Multiplanar reformat (MPR) Explanation: MPR allows for the creation of cross-sectional images along any desired plane, facilitating detailed evaluation of vessel courses. Question 7. Which artifact is most likely to occur due to patient motion during cardiac CT imaging? A) Beam hardening artifact B) Motion artifact C) Ring artifact D) Partial volume artifact Answer: B) Motion artifact Explanation: Patient movement during acquisition causes blurring or streaks, known as motion artifacts, which degrade image quality.
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Question 8. Which technological advancement involves the use of two different energy spectra to differentiate materials within the body? A) Iterative reconstruction B) Dual-energy CT C) 3D surface rendering D) MAR (metal artifact reduction) Answer: B) Dual-energy CT Explanation: Dual-energy CT acquires images at two energy levels simultaneously, enabling material differentiation based on their attenuation properties. Question 9. Which radiation dose quantity measures the energy deposited per unit mass in tissue? A) Exposure B) Absorbed dose C) Effective dose D) Dose length product (DLP) Answer: B) Absorbed dose
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D) Contrast volume used Answer: C) Tube current modulation Explanation: Tube current modulation adjusts the X-ray dose dynamically based on patient anatomy, significantly impacting the overall radiation dose. Question 12. Which contrast media property is primarily responsible for its ability to increase attenuation in CT imaging? A) Osmolality B) Iodine concentration C) Viscosity D) Molecular weight Answer: B) Iodine concentration Explanation: Iodine’s high atomic number causes increased attenuation of X-rays, making it effective as a contrast agent. Question 13. Which patient screening factor is crucial before administering iodinated contrast media? A) Blood glucose level
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B) Renal function (eGFR) C) Hemoglobin level D) Liver function tests Answer: B) Renal function (eGFR) Explanation: Renal function assessment is essential because iodinated contrast can cause contrast-induced nephropathy in patients with impaired renal function. Question 14. Which pharmacologic agent is commonly used to reduce heart rate prior to coronary CT angiography? A) Nitrates B) Beta-blockers C) Calcium channel blockers D) Nifedipine Answer: B) Beta-blockers Explanation: Beta-blockers decrease heart rate, improving image quality by reducing motion artifacts during CCTA.
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Question 17. The Agatston score is used to quantify: A) Myocardial perfusion B) Coronary artery calcium burden C) Myocardial infarct size D) Valve stenosis severity Answer: B) Coronary artery calcium burden Explanation: The Agatston score measures calcified plaque volume and density, providing a risk stratification for coronary artery disease. Question 18. Which myocardial abnormality appears as hyperattenuating tissue on CT, indicating old infarction? A) Edema B) Calcification C) Iron deposition D) Fat infiltration Answer: B) Calcification
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Explanation: Calcified tissue within the myocardium signifies previous infarction or chronic scarring. Question 19. Which feature is characteristic of a congenital coronary anomaly? A) Fistula originating from the right coronary artery B) Typical atherosclerotic plaque C) Calcified plaque in the LAD D) Typical ostial stenosis Answer: A) Fistula originating from the right coronary artery Explanation: Congenital anomalies include abnormal origin or course of coronary arteries, such as fistulas. Question 20. Which imaging feature suggests a myocardial bridge on coronary CTA? A) Focal calcification B) Vessel lumen narrowing during systole C) External compression of the coronary artery D) Fistula formation
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D) TIMI
Answer: A) CAD-RADS Explanation: CAD-RADS provides a standardized reporting system for coronary CTA findings, including stenosis severity. Question 23. Which imaging technique is most suitable for quantifying myocardial perfusion at rest and stress? A) Coronary calcium scoring B) Dual-energy CT perfusion imaging C) Coronary CTA D) Standard non-contrast CT Answer: B) Dual-energy CT perfusion imaging Explanation: Dual-energy CT can assess myocardial perfusion by differentiating iodine distribution during stress and rest. Question 24. Which CT feature is characteristic of myocardial infarction? A) Homogeneous hyperattenuation B) Regional wall motion abnormalities
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C) Myocardial calcification D) Coronary artery calcification only Answer: B) Regional wall motion abnormalities Explanation: Infarction often leads to segmental wall motion abnormalities seen on functional assessment. Question 25. Which valvular abnormality can be assessed with cardiac CT in the context of planning TAVI? A) Valve leaflet mobility B) Valve calcification and annular size C) Valve regurgitation severity D) Valve endocarditis Answer: B) Valve calcification and annular size Explanation: CT provides detailed measurements of valve anatomy, calcification extent, and annular dimensions critical for TAVI planning. Question 26. Which congenital heart disease is most commonly identified on adult cardiac CT? A) Atrial septal defect
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A) Dilated pulmonary arteries B) Small pulmonary veins C) Pulmonary hemorrhage D) Normal pulmonary artery size Answer: A) Dilated pulmonary arteries Explanation: Pulmonary hypertension causes enlargement of pulmonary arteries due to increased pressure. Question 29. Which imaging finding is typical of pulmonary embolism on CT? A) Hypoattenuating filling defect within a pulmonary artery B) Calcified thrombus C) Enlarged right ventricle D) Diffuse alveolar infiltrates Answer: A) Hypoattenuating filling defect within a pulmonary artery Explanation: Pulmonary emboli appear as low-attenuation filling defects obstructing the vessel lumen.
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Question 30. Which aortic pathology involves a tear in the intima creating a false lumen? A) Aortic aneurysm B) Aortic dissection C) Aortic hematoma D) Aortitis Answer: B) Aortic dissection Explanation: Dissection involves an intimal tear leading to blood flow between the layers of the vessel wall, creating a false lumen. Question 31. Which mediastinal abnormality can be characterized by enlarged lymph nodes? A) Thymoma B) Aneurysm C) Adenopathy D) Esophageal diverticulum Answer: C) Adenopathy Explanation: Enlarged lymph nodes in the mediastinum are termed adenopathy and may indicate infection, inflammation, or malignancy.
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Explanation: Chronic infarction often results in fibrotic tissue and calcification within the myocardium. Question 34. Which cardiac valve is most often evaluated for calcification on CT in elderly patients? A) Aortic valve B) Mitral valve C) Tricuspid valve D) Pulmonary valve Answer: A) Aortic valve Explanation: Aortic valve calcification is common in elderly patients and is associated with stenosis. Question 35. In the context of structural heart disease, which congenital abnormality involves a communication between the left and right atria? A) Atrial septal defect B) Ventricular septal defect C) Patent ductus arteriosus
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D) Coarctation of the aorta Answer: A) Atrial septal defect Explanation: ASD is a congenital defect with an opening between atria, often identified on CT. Question 36. Which cardiac mass is most likely to be a thrombus, especially in the left atrium? A) Myxoma B) Lipoma C) Thrombus D) Fibroma Answer: C) Thrombus Explanation: Left atrial thrombi commonly occur in atrial fibrillation and are visualized as filling defects. Question 37. Which pericardial disease involves thickening and fibrosis leading to restricted cardiac filling? A) Pericarditis B) Pericardial effusion
