Case Manager Certification Exam Prep Answer Key, Exams of Nursing

Case Manager Certification Exam Prep Answer Key

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 04/24/2026

prof-goodluck
prof-goodluck 🇺🇸

5

(1)

2K documents

1 / 28

Toggle sidebar

This page cannot be seen from the preview

Don't miss anything!

bg1
Case Manager Certification
Exam Prep Answer Key
Case management
The dynamic and systematic collaborative approach to providing and
coordinating health care services to a defined population.
- participative process to identify and facility options and services for meeting
individual healthcare needs while decreasing fragmentation and duplication of
care and increasing quality and cost effective clinical outcomes.
Standards of care
Parameters to measure the quality of healthcare
Clinical guidelines
Statements to help make decisions about health specific circumstances.
Clinical pathway
Structured multi-disciplined plan of care to support clinical guidelines and
protocol to improve continuity and coordination.
4 parts of clinical pathway
1. Timeline
2. Categories of care/activities and interventions
3. Intermediate and long term outcome criteria
4. Variance tracking
are 4 parts of what?
Decision tree
Used to select the best course of action in decisions where there is no clear
decisions.
Descriptive screening tool
Identifies characteristics about a population to show health prevention.
Predictive screening tool
Shows what may happen to a specific population.
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19
pf1a
pf1b
pf1c

Partial preview of the text

Download Case Manager Certification Exam Prep Answer Key and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

Case Manager Certification

Exam Prep Answer Key

Case management The dynamic and systematic collaborative approach to providing and coordinating health care services to a defined population.

  • participative process to identify and facility options and services for meeting individual healthcare needs while decreasing fragmentation and duplication of care and increasing quality and cost effective clinical outcomes. Standards of care Parameters to measure the quality of healthcare Clinical guidelines Statements to help make decisions about health specific circumstances. Clinical pathway Structured multi-disciplined plan of care to support clinical guidelines and protocol to improve continuity and coordination. 4 parts of clinical pathway
  1. Timeline
  2. Categories of care/activities and interventions
  3. Intermediate and long term outcome criteria
  4. Variance tracking are 4 parts of what? Decision tree Used to select the best course of action in decisions where there is no clear decisions. Descriptive screening tool Identifies characteristics about a population to show health prevention. Predictive screening tool Shows what may happen to a specific population.

Evaluative screening tool Evaluates the understanding/effectiveness Sf- 36 Predictive screening tool to assess functional health and well being. Assesses physical and mental health.

  • used in health economics, cost-effectiveness of health tx
  • evals individual patient health status.
  • does not consider sleep
  • scored 00-100, lower score-> incr. Disability Patient activation measure 13 item predictive screening tool to evaluate patient's knowledge, skills, confidence in self-care.
  • higher the score the better (scored 0-52)
  • predicts health care outcomes, medication adherence and er visits. Health risk assessment Predictive screening tool: patient's self assessment of their health and how likely they will seek care.
  • predicts future health costs
  • predicts likely-hood of progression of their illness to a worse condition.
  • examples: phq-9, etc. Rose q Health risk assessment for angina, mi, coronary heart disease. Defined angina pectoris as, "a chest pain or discomfort with these characteristics: (a) the site must include either the sternum (any level) or the left arm and left anterior chest (defined as the anterior chest wall between the levels of clavicle and lower end of sternum), (b) it must be provoked by either hurrying or walking uphill (or by walking on the level, for those who never attempt more), (c) when it occurs on walking it must make the subject either stop or slacken pace, unless nitroglycerin is taken, (d) it must disappear on a majority of

the course of treatment.

  • assesses: relation to self and others, depression and anxiety, daily living and role functioning, impulsive and addictive behavior, psychosis.
  • higher score poorer outcome Mini mental state exam Health risk assessment: 30 - point questionnaire measures cognitive impairment to screen for dementia.
  • higher the score, less dementia
  • 18 - 23 is mild dementia
  • 0 - 17 is sever dementia Hopkins symptom checklist- 25 Health risk assessment: self-reporting questionnaire symptom inventory which measures symptoms of anxiety and depression.
  • the scale for each question includes four categories of response ("not at all," "a little," "quite a bit," "extremely," rated 1 to 4, respectively). Two scores are calculated: the total score is the average of all 25 items, while the depression score is the average of the 15 depression items Mcgill pain questionnaire Scale of rating pain. It is a self-report questionnaire that allows individuals to give their doctor a good description of the quality and intensity of pain that they are experiencing. Users first select a single word from each group that best reflects their pain. Users then review the list and select the three words from groups 1-10 that best describe their pain, two words from groups 11-15, a single word from group 16, and then one word from groups 17-20. After completing the questionnaire, users will have selected seven words that best describe their pain. A What part of medicare covers skilled nursing facility? B What part of medicare covers durable medical equipment? Goals
  1. Patient focused
  2. Measurable
  3. Attainable
  4. Relevant
  5. Time oriented Piaget Developmental theory for cognitive ability to process/analyze information Assess, plan, implement/intervention, monitor/evaluation 4 stages of case management Sensorimotor: object performance and separation anxiety. Piaget's age 0-2, Preoperational: pretend, egocentric Piaget's stage age 2- 6 Concrete operational: logical, math, conservation Piaget's stage 7- 12 Formal operational: abstract, hypothetical Piaget's stage 12-adult Trust vs. Mistrust Erickson 0-1 1/ Autonomy vs. Shame Erickson 1 1/5- 3 Initiative vs. Guilt Erickson 3- 5 Industry vs. Inferiority Erickson 5- 12 Ego id vs. Role confusion Erickson 12- 18 Intimacy vs. Isolation Erickson 18- 40 Generative vs. Stagnation Erickson 40- 65

Poor attitude, memory loss, literacy, pride, fear, side effects, can't "see" results, decreased choices, finances are all ----- barriers Patient My med list, readiness ruler, motivational interviewing, modified morisky scale are all tools for ---- barriers Provider No knowledge of patient, not familiar with family preferences, lack of accountability are examples of ---- barriers System Poor communication, not identified care coordinators are ----- barriers Goal of cm To ensure patients have the tools and resources to help manage their needs, increase self confidence and control and self management Physiological, safety, love, esteem, self-actualization Maslow's hierarchy of needs Resource management Process of identifying, confirming, coordinating, negotiating resources to meet needs Milliman care guidelines Soft ware, evidence based guidelines/tool for treating common conditions, chronic care, bh

  • conducing, actionable, measurable
  • helps cm coordinate care and anticipate needs Interqual Clinical decision support tool determines when and how a patient progresses through the continuum.
  • organizes resources utilization,
  • objective evidence based criteria for assessing appropriate care for patients. Helps fraud/abuae Utilization management Forward looking using evidence based criteria to support decisions.

Utilization review Backward looking to ensure patient's 5 rights were observed

**1. Provider

  1. Services
  2. Setting
  3. Time
  4. Cost** 5 rights of utilization review Utilization management Cm that identifies patients, their needs, develops individual holistic care plans addressing barriers Prior authorization Before services determines actual need Denial Requires: patent and provider notified, clinical rationale, rights to appeal, legally entitled to due process to appeal Concurrent review Process of reviewing if patient meets criteria while services are occurring Retrospective review Looks back, id outliers, provides helpful information for future changes Cost benefit analysis Shows what the cost would be if services were provided and outcomes occurred verses their current situation. Demonstrates ration of dollars spent vs. Savings achieved. Discharge planning Assessing care needs to ensure patients are transitioned safely. Due process The right to appeal decisions Md The only people who can deny services Medical director

Temporary relief for the patient's family or caregiver. This is covered by medicare waiver or long term insurance and veterans Hospice Used when someone has less than 6 months to live. Philosophy not a place. Medicare part a covers medical supplies equipment medications nurses doctors dietitians used during this time. Private duty nursing One-on-one care when a child or adult is impaired by a catastrophic event or chronic illness. Usually not covered by insurance Sub acute care When the patient does not meet criteria for inpatient but is unable to go home either Yes Is a skilled nursing facility covered by medicare part a Custodial long-term care Not skilled helps with adl's and medication management. The goal is to maximize independence. No Is long term care covered by medicare? Palliative care A type of care for someone with a serious illness and needs help with symptom management they do not have to be terminally ill and there is no time limit. May be covered under medicare part b Medicare eligibility

  1. Older than 65
  2. People eligible for social security retirement
  3. Permanent resident for five continuous years
  4. May claim up to 24 months after illness diagnosis or date of injury.
  5. If you have received social security disability for 24 months
  6. Less than 65 with kidney disease that appears to be irreversible or

permanent requiring regular dialysis or kidney transplant to maintain life. Kidney transplant Hospital skilled nursing facilities hospice approved home health Medicare part a covers: 80% Medicare part b only covers what percent? Yes Does medicare part b cover oxygen? Physicians services outpatient hospital services medical equipment and supplies Medicare part b covers: Medicare part c Also known as the medicare advantage plan operated by private companies. Covers medications transportation exxtra Medicaid eligibility Based on income and financial resources. If you've already been receiving government social security if a child less than 21 years old and has a disability severe enough to meet disability standards under social security disability. Parental income is disregarded Skilled home health care and long-term care Medicaid covers Schip State children's health insurance program Schip Administered by the center for medicare and medicaid. Government gives money to 2 approved state programs up to the age of 19

Large companies use this. They need a third party administer to handle claims. Case managers report to the third party administer. Fee for service Type of payment where providers are paid for each service. Capitation Type of payment to a provider for a group of people assigned to them where there is a fixed cost per person, per time period , not dependent on how often that person utilizes the resources. The provider is contracted under a hmo. Per member, per month Prospective pay Type of payment that changed medicare reimbursement from a fee for service to a fixed payment based on drgs. Diagnostic related group Pricing formula used by medicare that reimburses a fixed amount based on a diagnosis. Utilization review department case managers evaluate if a diagnostic test is medically necessary. All patient refined diagnosis related groups (apdrg) Type of payment with 2 subclasses based on 1. Severity of illness (organ system failure or loss of funtion and 2. Risk of mortality Subrogation Legal right of an insurance company to get repaid from another insurance entity if they are found responsible for the medical care or wage-loss. Example your insurance company gets repaid by another driver's insurance company. Stop loss or reinsurance Insurance for an insurance company. When a certain threshold has been met. Common for high risk claims ex: worker's comp. Clinical risk group Adjusting payment based on clinical characteristics and resource demands of a patient. Claims based classification system. Disability insurance

Insurance that replaces income lost when the insured person cannot work due to illness or injury based on their own occupation or any occupation. Case managers help patients return to work. Worker's comp State governed insurance company that requires your employer to provide wage replacement and medical benefits for temporary and permanent disabilities regardless if the worker is at fault. Vocational rehab State program that assists people with mental or physical impairments that impede them from employment by assisting with training, higher education, rehab, financial support. Eligible if between the ages of 16 and 70. 211 Federally funded support referral services and crisis management. Snap for seniors Food stamps for seniors 80% Medicare covers what percent? 55 Medicare will begin coverage of home oxygen with an arterial blood gas result at or above a partial pressure of ___mm hg while at rest on room air. 88 Medicare will cover home oxygen if o2 sat is at or below _____% while at rest on room air, exercising on room air or while asleep or a greater than normal fall in oxygen level during sleep (a decrease in arterial po 2 more than 10 mm hg, or decrease in arterial oxygen saturation more than 5%) associated with symptoms or signs reasonably attributable to hypoxemia (e.g., impairment of cognitive processes and nocturnal restlessness or insomnia). Dependent edema Medicare covers home oxygen for patients whose arterial po 2 is 56-59 mm hg or saturation is 89%, if there is evidence of____ suggesting congestive heart failure.

Hedis Tool managed by ncqa used by more than 90 percent of america's health plans to measure performance on important dimensions of care and service. 80 measures and 5 domains including: effectiveness, access, experience, ur, descriptive info Hedis Health care effectiveness data information set Patient centered medical home (pcmh) A care delivery model whereby patient treatment is coordinated through their primary care physician to ensure they receive the necessary care when and where they need it, in a manner they can understand. National quality forum Not for profit membership organization to develop and implement a national strategy for standardizing health care quality measures and reporting. This organization was charged by the affordable care act to create the national priorities partnership and nursing sensitive care standards ( death of surgery patients, pressure ulcers, falls, restraints, utis urinary catheters), ventilator associated pneumonia, smoking cessation) National committee for quality assurance (ncqa) Private not for profit organization that accredits certain organizations if they meet standards to improve health care quality. Includes a quality compass to score health plans. Utilization review accreditation commission (urac) An independent nonprofit organization that offers quality benchmark programs to improve quality and accountability of health care organizations. Joint commission Not for profit organization that set performance standards and accredit hospitals, nursing homes, and ambulatory care clinics for safe and effective care with site visits every 3 years. Quality seal. Magnet

Accreditation developed by ancc demonstrating quality nursing leadership and excellence. It focuses on: quality, identifying excellence in nursing, and disseminating best practice. International organization for standardization (iso) Not for profit organizations that identifies and develops standards for everything. Peer review quality improvement organization (qio) Private not for profit organization contracted by the center for medicare and medicaid services consisting of health care professionals who review complaints about care and implement changes for medicare patients. They ensure the patient right care for the right person at the right time is safe, patient centered, timely, and equitable. Part of the us department of health and human services. Quality management Prevention of client care problems Risk management Analyzes problems and minimizes losses after an error occurs. Evaluates options, cost, feasibility, social and selects and implements measures to decrease risk Risk assessment Evaluates hazards, cost, feasibility, dose-response model. Risk communication An important step in risk management that involves stakeholders from the start Aggregate data Data that has a common variable. An example would be diabetes. Root cause analysis Process of identifying the cause and factors contributing to variation in performance outcomes. Histogram

Standards of practice or care Guidelines of what an rn should or should not due. A benchmark of excellence. Scope of practice Actions permitted by law Code of ethics Succinct statements of ethical obligations and duties, goals, and values. Scope of nursing practice Describes nursing practice dependent on education, experience, role and population Standards of professional nursing practice Authoritative statements of rn duties everyone is expected to fill regardless of role, population or specialty. Health insurance portability and accountability act (hipaa) This does not apply in treatment, billing, required reporting, quality assurance, peer review, business planning, training, emergencies Privacy practices Hipaa individual right #1 is the right of the individual to receive information on the health care provider's what? Request restrictions Hipaa individual right #2 is the right of the individual to what? Access to health information Access, inspect, copy Hipaa individual right #3 is the individual's right to their health information to do what? Disclosures Hipaa individual right #4 is the right to request an accounting of all health information what? Corrected Hipaa individual right #5 is the right to request health information to be Hipaa

Health care providers are required to: provide security of paper and electronic health records, institute a complaint process to investigate compliance, and train staff on which law? Balanced budget act Law enacted in 1977 that created the medicare part c + choice program, also knows as the medicare advantage plan, is a managed care option that allows new types of health plans under private companies to cover medicare benefits at a capitated (per enrollee) amount to include hospital and medical, parts a and b. Medicare prescription drug improvement and modernization act Law enacted in 2003 signed by george bush that allowed seniors and people with disabilities to have prescription drug coverage Mental health parity act A law enacted in 1996 that prevented a group health plan from putting a lifetime or annual financial cap on mental health that was less than medical health. Emergency medical treatment and active labor act (emtala) A law in 1986 that requires hospital receiving medicare and have an er to asses, provide treatment and stabilize a patient before determining their ability to pay. An amendment in 1989 requires hospitals to accept transfer of a patient requiring special treatment regardless of ability to pay. Omnibus budget reconciliation act A law in 1989-1990 that required all states to have medicaid coverage for pregnant women and their children up to age 6 if the family is homeless or below 133% of the federal poverty level. Patient self determination act A law that requires health care providers to inform patients of their right to refuse or accept treatment. They must provide written information on their state law regarding advanced directives. They must also document if they have an advanced directive, ensure state compliance, create policies, educate staff.