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CDCR SGT. EXAM UPDATED EXAM
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.
CCD 117 - correct answer- All daily movement and assignment changes shall be documented as they occur on a CDC 117. The White Original Copy shall be retained for one year in Central Control. The Yellow Copy shall be the source of information for the Daily Movement Sheet (DMS). CDC 154 - correct answer- All bed and housing changes are documented on a CDC 154. The White Original Copy is retained in Central Control for one year. Daily Movement Sheet (DMS) - correct answer- Lists all arrivals, departures, temporary releases, out-to-courts, family visits, changes in housing, work assignments and custody classification during the previous 24-hour period. Required "Out to Court" (OTC) Documents: - correct answer- 1. CDC 161: Wardens Checkout Order
- CDC 123: Body Receipt
- Photo Pack/Escape Card
- CDC 804 Detainer
Required "Out to Medical" (OTM) Documents: - correct answer-
- CDC 7252 Request for Authorization of Temporary Removal for Medical Treatment
- CDC 123 Body Receipt
- CDC 2170 Inmate Transport and Guarding Assessment
- Photo Pack Stage 1 Level of Disturbance/Emergency - correct answer- Incidents for which it is determined that containment and control can be achieved by on-duty personnel. Stage 2 Level of Disturbance/Emergency - correct answer- Incident requires on- and off-duty staff to control Stage 3 Level of Disturbance/Emergency - correct answer- Incident requires assistance from intra-departmental (i.e. other institutions, Paroles, etc.), and/or outside agencies (i.e. CHP, Sheriff's Dept., etc.) Stage 4 Level of Disturbance/Emergency - correct answer- Incident requires assistance from the Office of Emergency Services (OES), National Guard, etc.
- Necessary involvement of other agencies or jurisdictions.
- State of Emergency pursuant to CCR 3383(c) requiring the postponement of nonessential administrative decisions and actions including normal time requirements for such decisions and actions. CCR 3084 I/M Appeal 1st Level: - correct answer- 30 Working Days Usually Heard by Facility Supervisor CCR 3084 I/M Appeal 2nd Level: - correct answer- 30 Working Days Usually Heard by Warden or Designee CCR 3084 I/M Appeal 3rd Level: - correct answer- 60 Working Days. Usually Heard at the Director's Level. Emergency Appeals: - correct answer- If warranted, the 1st level shall be waived. The 2nd Level shall be completed in 5 Working days.
Who Can Be the Chief Disciplinary Officer (CDO)? - correct answer- A person not below the level of a Correctional Administrator or Parole Administrator I. What is the Role of the Chief Disciplinary Officer (CDO)? - correct answer- 1. Affirm, Reverse or Modify the disciplinary action or credit forfeiture.
- Order a different action/method
- Dismiss
- Order a re-hearing What are the 3 ways of I/M Discipline? - correct answer- 1. Verbal Counseling
- Custodial Chrono (CDC 128-A)
- Rules Violation Report (RVR) CDC 115 Who reviews all disciplinary methods and actions? - correct answer- Chief Disciplinary Officer (CDO) Who can classify a 115? - correct answer- 1. Captain, PA3, CC OR
- An experienced LT, CC2 or PA
- 114-A1: Segregation Profile (must be updated every 90-days) including non-confidential enemies on CDC 812.
- 7219 Medical Evaluation
- 128-MH7: Pre Ad. Seg. Placement Mental Health Screening. What are the 9 roles of a Sergeant? - correct answer- 1. Hear Administrative CDC 115's
- Prepare/review 837 Incident Reports
- Train Officers
- Assist the LT w/ 114-D Lock-Up Orders
- Monitor I/M Movement and Programs
- Review Reports
- Review and Answer 1st Level 602's
- Monitor Sick Leave
- Think and Act Quickly in Emergencies What are the levels of STAFF discipline? - correct answer- 1. Preventative
- Corrective
- Adverse Identify the Seven (7) levels of Disciplinary Credit Forfeitures: - correct answer- A1, A2, B, C, D, E, F
Identify the potential credit loss for each level of Disciplinary Credit Forfeitures: - correct answer- A1: 181- A2: 151- B: 121- C: 91- D: 61- E: 31- F: 0- Name the 7 Major Lawsuits Affecting CDCR - correct answer- 1. Armstrong (ADA Disability Placement Program)
- Clark (DDP: Developmental Disability Placement)
- Coleman (Mental Illness: CCCMS, DMH, EOP, MHCB)
- Perez (right to Dental care)
- Plata - Access to adequate medical care services (CDC MH- 7362 Medical Request Form)
- Valdivia - Parole Revocation Process
- Madrid- Madrid PBSP ad-seg Clark Lawsuit Outcome - correct answer- Developmental Disability Program (DDP)
When does a 115 need to be issued? - correct answer- Within 15 days after the discovery of a violation the I/M should receive 1st copy of the RVR. What is the maximum time limit for a 115 to be heard after the I/M receives the 1st copy within 15 days of the violation? - correct answer- 30 days is the maximum time frame for a 115 to be heard How long after receiving all non-confidential copies will the I/M's 115 be heard? - correct answer- Within 24 hours After the hearing, what is the maximum number of days for the I/M to receive final copies of the RVR after the CDO review? - correct answer- Five days When should an I/M be assigned a staff assistant? - correct answer- 1. When I/M is illiterate or non-English speaking.
- Complexity of issues are such that assistance is necessary for the I/M to comprehend
- I/M's disability is such that staff assistance would be necessary for the I/M to participate in the disciplinary process.
When should an I/M be assigned an Investigative Employee for a Serious Rules Violation Report (CCR 3315) - correct answer- 1. Complexity of the issues requires further investigation.
- Housing status makes it unlikely the I/M can collect evidence for defense.
- Additional information is necessary for a fair hearing.
- Behavior may present a nexus with a Security Threat Group (STG) What is a CDCR 114D? - correct answer- Administrative Segregation Order What is a CDC 1030 - correct answer- Confidential Information Disclosure Form What is a CDC 812 Form? - correct answer- Notice of Critical Case Information - Non-Confidential Enemies. What is a CDC 812-A Form? - correct answer- Notice of Critical Case Information - Prison Gang Identification
What does CMARS stand for? - correct answer- California Multi-Agency Radio System During what time of the year are Temperature Logs documented? - correct answer- May 1st through October 31st List the 13 Reportable Incidents per DOM 51030 - correct answer- 1. All Felonies
- General or Partial Lock-Downs
- Riots, I/M Strikes or General Demonstrations
- Major Power Failures
- Serious Accidents or Injuries
- Deaths
- Significant Damage or Destruction of State Property
- Escape/Attempted Escape
- Any State of Emergency as described in CCR 3383
- Any use or discharge of weapons, chemical agents or tasers.
- Threat against the President, VP or State Officials
- Safety Grievances - Employee
- Employee Job Actions
How are 837 A-1 & 837-A2 Written and by whom? - correct answer- In the 3rd Person by a Lieutenant How are 837 B's Written and by whom? - correct answer- In the 3rd person by a Sergeant How are 837 C's Written and by whom? - correct answer- In the 1st Person by staff Letter of Instruction (LOI) should include what information? - correct answer- 1. Facts: Date(s) and Time(s)
- Why it is a violation
- Previous discussion(s) related to the progress to the LOI
- Expectations and an "expected" date to meet them by
- Signatures: Employee and Supervisor
- Warden's Authorization to place in employee's file; stays there for one-year. List the responsibilities of a Supervisor regarding Alarm Response: - correct answer- 1. Take Control
- Assess the situation
- Assess the effectiveness of the tactics and equipment being deployed
Use of Force Policy (CCR 3268) - correct answer- The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation (CDCR) recognizes the sanctity of human life. Therefore, the use of deadly force will only be used when it is reasonably necessary to:
- Defend the employee or other persons from imminent threat of death or Great Bodily Injury (GBI).
- Prevent an escape from custody
- Stop an act(s) such as a riot or arson that constitute an immediate jeopardy to institutional security and because of their magnitude are likely to result in escapes, GBI or death of other persons.
- Dispose of seriously injured. Immediate Use of Force (CCR 3268 Use of Force Policy) - correct answer- The force used to respond without delay to a situation or circumstance that constitutes an imminent threat to security or the safety of persons. Non-Deadly Force (CCR 3268 Use of Force Policy) - correct answer- Any use of force that is not likely to result in death. Deadly Force (CCR 3268 Use of Force Policy) - correct answer- Any use of force that is likely to result in death. Any discharge of a firearm other than the lawful discharge during
weapons qualifications, firearms training, or other legal recreational use of a firearm is deadly force. Unnecessary Force (CCR 3268 Use of Force Policy) - correct answer- The use of force when none is required or appropriate. Excessive Force (CCR 3268 Use of Force Policy) - correct answer- The use of MORE force than is objectively reasonable to accomplish a lawful purpose. Non-Conventional Use of Force (CCR 3268 Use of Force Policy) - correct answer- Force that utilizes techniques or instruments that are not specifically authorized in policy, procedures or training. Depending on the circumstance, non- conventional use of force can be necessary and reasonable; it can also be unnecessary or excessive. Controlled Use of Force (CCR 3268 Use of Force Policy) - correct answer- The force used in an institution/facility setting when an I/M's presence or conduct poses a threat to safety or security and the I/M is located in an area that can be controlled or isolated.
Watch Commander shall be notified. Medical Staff shall observe Heat Risk I/M's every two hours as long as the inside temperature remains at 95 degrees. Which credit forfeiture categories are a Felony offense and referred to the District Attorney (DA)? - correct answer- A-1, A-2, B Which credit forfeiture categories are a Misdemeanor Offense?
- correct answer- C, D, E, F List the possible punishments for an Administrative (3315) RVR
- correct answer- 1. Counseling
- Loss of Privileges (not more than 30 days from date of hearing).
- Confined to Quarters (CTQ): For one or more weekends and/or holidays - not to exceed 5 consecutive days and not to exceed 10 days in a 35-day period; I/M shall be released to attend work/program assignments.
- Placement of hold or restriction on I/M's trust account for violations involving property.
- Reduced to a 128-A Chrono
List the "cost-savings" method order for hiring - correct answer-
- Re-directs
- PIEs
- SLR's (Sick Leave Relief Officers)
- OTAP's (Overtime Avoidance Pool)
- PVO (Voluntary Overtime) What is the minimum number of times that I/M's must be counted each calendar day? - correct answer- Four What do you do if you receive allegations of a staff member who is under the influence of drugs/alcohol? - correct answer- 1. Notify Supervisor
- Monitor Staff for physical signs
- Address staff and express concerns
- Recommend EAP (Employee Assistance Program)
- Refer to MTA (Medical Staff) for evaluation
- Contact ISU (Investigative Services Unit) Discipline - correct answer- Action that corrects
