Download Certified Orthopaedic Surgery Coder Exam and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!
Question 1. Which prefix indicates something located above or higher than another structure? A) Infra- B) Supra- C) Sub- D) Inter- Answer: B Explanation: The prefix "supra-" means above or over, indicating a position higher than another structure. Question 2. In medical terminology, what does the suffix "-itis" signify? A) Inflammation B) Infection C) Degeneration D) Tumor Answer: A Explanation: The suffix "-itis" denotes inflammation of the organ or tissue, such as in "arthritis."
Question 3. Which directional term describes a structure closer to the midline of the body? A) Lateral B) Medial C) Proximal D) Distal Answer: B Explanation: "Medial" refers to a position closer to the midline of the body, whereas "lateral" is farther from the midline. Question 4. Which plane divides the body into equal right and left halves? A) Coronal plane B) Sagittal plane C) Transverse plane D) Oblique plane Answer: B Explanation: The sagittal plane divides the body into right and left parts; if it divides into equal halves, it is called the midsagittal plane.
Question 7. Which term refers to a bone that is embedded within a tendon? A) Sesamoid bone B) Irregular bone C) Flat bone D) Short bone Answer: A Explanation: Sesamoid bones, like the patella, develop within tendons to protect them from stress. Question 8. A fracture characterized by a break that spirals around the bone is called a: A) Comminuted fracture B) Greenstick fracture C) Spiral fracture D) Transverse fracture Answer: C Explanation: Spiral fractures have a helical break pattern, often caused by twisting forces.
Question 9. Which pathological condition involves inflammation of the bone marrow? A) Osteoarthritis B) Osteomyelitis C) Osteoporosis D) Osteonecrosis Answer: B Explanation: Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone marrow and surrounding bone tissue. Question 10. In surgical procedures, what is an arthroscopy primarily used for? A) Open joint repair B) Internal fixation of fractures C) Minimally invasive joint examination and treatment D) Bone grafting Answer: C Explanation: Arthroscopy is a minimally invasive procedure to visualize, diagnose, and treat joint issues through small incisions.
Question 13. The primary function of long bones is: A) Providing protection for internal organs B) Producing blood cells and serving as levers for movement C) Connecting muscles to bones D) Supporting weight only in the lower extremities Answer: B Explanation: Long bones serve as levers for movement and produce blood cells in the marrow. Question 14. Which joint classification permits movement in all directions? A) Fibrous B) Synovial C) Cartilaginous D) Synarthrosis Answer: B Explanation: Synovial joints, such as the shoulder and hip, allow movement in multiple planes.
Question 15. Which nerve is primarily responsible for innervating the anterior compartment of the thigh? A) Sciatic nerve B) Femoral nerve C) Obturator nerve D) Sciatic nerve Answer: B Explanation: The femoral nerve supplies motor innervation to the anterior thigh muscles. Question 16. Which artery supplies blood to the majority of the upper limb? A) Subclavian artery B) Axillary artery C) Brachial artery D) Radial artery Answer: C Explanation: The brachial artery is the main blood supplier to the upper arm and forearm.
Question 19. Which ICD- 10 - CM code category is used for coding neoplasms of bones and soft tissues? A) Chapter 13 B) Chapter 2 C) Chapter 18 D) Chapter 21 Answer: B Explanation: Chapter 2 covers neoplasms, including benign and malignant tumors affecting bones and soft tissues. Question 20. When coding a traumatic dislocation, which code characteristic is important? A) Whether it is initial or subsequent encounter B) The presence of infection C) The type of fracture associated D) The specific nerve involved Answer: A Explanation: ICD- 10 - CM distinguishes between initial and subsequent encounters for dislocations, impacting coding.
Question 21. In CPT coding, what does the modifier 25 indicate? A) Significant, separately identifiable E/M service on the same day as a procedure B) Unrelated procedure performed during the same session C) Bilateral procedure D) Postoperative complication Answer: A Explanation: Modifier 25 is used to indicate that a significant, separately identifiable E/M service was performed on the same day as another procedure. Question 22. Which CPT code series covers fracture treatment, including open and closed reduction? A) 20000- 29999 B) 70000 series C) 90000 series D) 30000- 39999 Answer: A Explanation: The 20000-29999 series includes codes for fracture and dislocation treatment procedures.
Question 25. Which of the following is a common indication for a vertebroplasty? A) Herniated disc B) Vertebral compression fracture C) Spinal cord tumor D) Scoliosis Answer: B Explanation: Vertebroplasty is a minimally invasive procedure used to treat vertebral compression fractures. Question 26. Which ICD- 10 - CM code is appropriate for a primary malignant bone tumor? A) C40. B) D16. C) M16. D) G56. Answer: A Explanation: C40.0 codes for malignant neoplasm of the long bones of the lower limb.
Question 27. When documenting an operative report, what element is essential for proper coding? A) The patient's social history B) The detailed description of the procedure performed C) The patient's family history D) The surgeon's personal opinion Answer: B Explanation: Accurate operative reports must include detailed descriptions of the procedure to ensure correct coding. Question 28. Which type of muscle tissue is involuntary and found in internal organs? A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle C) Cardiac muscle D) Voluntary muscle Answer: B Explanation: Smooth muscle is involuntary and located in internal organs such as the intestines and blood vessels.
Question 31. Which CPT code would be used for a total hip joint replacement? A) 27130 B) 27447 C) 27590 D) 27810 Answer: A Explanation: CPT code 27130 is used for total hip arthroplasty (replacement). Question 32. Which modifier is used to indicate that a procedure was performed on the contralateral side? A) 50 B) 51 C) RT D) LT Answer: D Explanation: Modifier LT indicates a procedure performed on the left side, while RT indicates the right.
Question 33. Which of the following is classified as a sesamoid bone? A) Clavicle B) Patella C) Femur D) Radius Answer: B Explanation: The patella is a sesamoid bone embedded within the quadriceps tendon. Question 34. Which nerve is most commonly affected in carpal tunnel syndrome? A) Ulnar nerve B) Radial nerve C) Median nerve D) Axillary nerve Answer: C Explanation: Carpal tunnel syndrome involves compression of the median nerve.
Question 37. Which body region is primarily involved in a Cobb angle measurement? A) Cervical spine B) Thoracic spine C) Lumbar spine D) Sacrum Answer: B Explanation: Cobb angle is used to measure the degree of scoliosis curvature in the thoracic spine. Question 38. Which ICD- 10 - CM code is appropriate for rheumatoid arthritis affecting the wrist? A) M06. B) M05. C) M45. D) M16. Answer: A Explanation: M06.09 indicates rheumatoid arthritis of the wrist, unspecified.
Question 39. Which CPT code series includes procedures for joint injections? A) 20600- 20610 B) 20550- 20551 C) 64450- 64454 D) 20900- 20920 Answer: A Explanation: Codes 20600-20610 are used for injections of joints and bursae. Question 40. Which term describes a congenital deformity of the foot characterized by medially deviated big toe? A) Clubfoot B) Hallux valgus C) Pes planus D) Hammertoe Answer: B Explanation: Hallux valgus, or bunion, involves lateral deviation of the big toe.
