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Question 1. Which bone forms the posterior part of the shoulder girdle? A) Clavicle B) Scapula C) Humerus D) Sternum Answer: B Explanation: The scapula, or shoulder blade, forms the posterior part of the shoulder girdle, providing attachment sites for muscles and articulating with the humerus and clavicle. Question 2. The rotator cuff muscles primarily insert on which part of the humerus? A) Greater tubercle B) Lesser tubercle C) Intertubercular groove D) Surgical neck Answer: A Explanation: The rotator cuff muscles (supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis) insert on the greater tubercle of the humerus, stabilizing the glenohumeral joint. Question 3. Which nerve is most commonly injured in an anterior shoulder dislocation?
A) Axillary nerve B) Musculocutaneous nerve C) Radial nerve D) Suprascapular nerve Answer: A Explanation: The axillary nerve is most vulnerable during anterior shoulder dislocation because it courses close to the inferior glenohumeral joint capsule, risking injury. Question 4. The blood supply to the diaphysis of long bones is primarily from which artery? A) Nutrient artery B) Epiphyseal artery C) Periosteal arteries D) Metaphyseal arteries Answer: A Explanation: The nutrient artery enters the diaphysis through the nutrient foramen and supplies the inner two-thirds of the cortex, playing a key role in bone growth and healing. Question 5. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of primary bone healing? A) Formation of callus
D) Articular cartilage Answer: B Explanation: Elastic cartilage, found in structures like the external ear and epiglottis, contains elastic fibers allowing flexibility. Question 8. Muscle fibers that generate rapid, powerful contractions but fatigue quickly are classified as: A) Type I fibers B) Type IIa fibers C) Type IIb fibers D) Smooth muscle fibers Answer: C Explanation: Type IIb fibers are fast-twitch, glycolytic fibers that produce quick, forceful contractions but fatigue rapidly. Question 9. The biomechanical property describing a material's ability to return to its original shape after deformation is: A) Plasticity B) Elasticity C) Viscosity D) Creep Answer: B
Explanation: Elasticity refers to a material's capacity to recover its shape after stress is removed. Question 10. Which load-bearing tissue in the musculoskeletal system demonstrates the highest tensile strength? A) Tendons B) Ligaments C) Cartilage D) Bone Answer: A Explanation: Tendons have high tensile strength because they connect muscle to bone and transmit force during movement. Question 11. The AO classification system is used primarily to classify which type of injury? A) Soft tissue tumors B) Fractures C) Ligament injuries D) Dislocations Answer: B Explanation: The AO classification system categorizes fractures based on location, pattern, and severity, aiding in standardized communication and management.
B) 8-15 years C) 20-30 years D) Over 60 years Answer: B Explanation: SCFE commonly occurs in adolescents aged 8-15 years, often associated with growth spurts and obesity. Question 15. Which ligament is most often involved in a medial collateral ligament (MCL) injury of the knee? A) Medial collateral ligament B) Lateral collateral ligament C) Anterior cruciate ligament D) Posterior cruciate ligament Answer: A Explanation: The MCL is on the medial side of the knee and is commonly injured in valgus stress injuries. Question 16. The most common site of fracture in osteoporosis is: A) Femoral neck B) Radius (distal) C) Vertebral bodies D) Clavicle
Answer: C Explanation: Osteoporotic fractures most frequently occur in the vertebral bodies due to decreased bone mass and strength. Question 17. The hallmark of rheumatoid arthritis on plain radiographs is: A) Juxta-articular osteopenia and joint space narrowing B) Subchondral sclerosis and osteophytes C) Soft tissue calcifications D) Congenital dislocation Answer: A Explanation: Rheumatoid arthritis features include periarticular osteopenia, joint space narrowing, and marginal erosions. Question 18. Which class of drugs is used as disease-modifying agents in rheumatoid arthritis? A) NSAIDs B) Corticosteroids C) DMARDs D) Opioids Answer: C Explanation: DMARDs (e.g., methotrexate, sulfasalazine) modify disease progression in rheumatoid arthritis.
B) Participants randomly assigned to intervention or control groups C) Retrospective data analysis D) Only qualitative data collection Answer: B Explanation: RCTs assign participants randomly to different interventions, minimizing bias and establishing causality. Question 22. The primary goal of fracture reduction is to: A) Achieve anatomical alignment and stability B) Minimize blood loss C) Prevent infection D) Reduce pain only Answer: A Explanation: Fracture reduction aims to restore proper alignment and stability to facilitate healing and functional recovery. Question 23. The Gustilo-Anderson classification is used to categorize: A) Open fractures B) Closed fractures C) Dislocations D) Soft tissue tumors
Answer: A Explanation: It grades open fractures based on wound size, contamination, and soft tissue damage, guiding management. Question 24. A typical presentation of a supracondylar humerus fracture in children includes: A) Swelling and deformity around the elbow with a 'pulled' forearm B) Pain and swelling in the wrist C) Isolated olecranon pain D) Radial nerve palsy with wrist drop Answer: A Explanation: Supracondylar fractures present with elbow swelling, deformity, and often the 'pulled' or displaced forearm due to muscle pull. Question 25. The most common mechanism of injury for a scaphoid fracture is: A) Fall onto an outstretched hand B) Direct blow to the wrist C) Twist injury of the thumb D) Hyperextension of the fingers Answer: A Explanation: Falling onto an outstretched hand transmits axial load to the scaphoid, leading to fracture.
B) Ulnar nerve injury C) Median nerve injury D) Axillary nerve injury Answer: A Explanation: The radial nerve spirals around the humerus and is commonly injured in mid-shaft fractures, leading to wrist drop. Question 29. The main blood supply to the femoral head in adults is via the: A) Medial circumflex femoral artery B) Lateral circumflex femoral artery C) Obturator artery D) Inferior gluteal artery Answer: A Explanation: The medial circumflex femoral artery supplies most of the blood to the femoral head; injury can lead to avascular necrosis. Question 30. The classic clinical sign of compartment syndrome includes: A) Pain out of proportion to injury B) Loss of distal pulse C) Numbness only D) Visible swelling without pain
Answer: A Explanation: Severe pain disproportionate to injury, especially with passive stretch, is a hallmark of compartment syndrome requiring urgent decompression. Question 31. Which of the following is a contraindication for closed reduction of a dislocated shoulder? A) Neurovascular compromise B) Acute anterior dislocation C) First-time dislocation without fracture D) Hematoma formation Answer: A Explanation: Neurovascular compromise necessitates urgent open reduction or surgical intervention. Question 32. The Salter-Harris classification is used to describe injuries involving: A) Growth plates (physis) in children B) Articular cartilage tears C) Ligament injuries in adults D) Soft tissue tumors Answer: A Explanation: It categorizes physeal (growth plate) fractures in pediatric patients to guide prognosis and treatment.
A) Developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants B) Congenital clubfoot C) Scoliosis D) Osteogenesis Imperfecta Answer: A Explanation: The Pavlik harness maintains hip flexion and abduction, promoting proper development in infants with DDH. Question 36. Which tumor is the most common primary malignant bone tumor in children? A) Osteosarcoma B) Ewing’s sarcoma C) Chondrosarcoma D) Multiple myeloma Answer: A Explanation: Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumor in children and adolescents. Question 37. The classic radiographic appearance of osteosarcoma includes: A) Sunburst periosteal reaction and Codman triangle B) Onion-skin periosteal reaction C) Geographic bone lysis with sclerotic border
D) Ground-glass matrix Answer: A Explanation: Osteosarcoma often shows a sunburst pattern and Codman triangle due to aggressive periosteal reaction. Question 38. The hallmark of Ewing’s sarcoma on imaging is: A) Onion-skin periosteal reaction B) Sunburst periosteal reaction C) Sunburst pattern with periosteal elevation D) Geographic lytic lesion Answer: A Explanation: Ewing’s sarcoma typically appears with onion-skin periosteal reaction, reflecting layered periosteal proliferation. Question 39. Which condition is characterized by a "shepherd's crook" deformity on x-ray? A) Osteoarthritis B) Osteomalacia C) Osteogenesis Imperfecta D) Paget's disease of bone Answer: D
A) Lipoma B) Rhabdomyosarcoma C) Liposarcoma D) Fibrosarcoma Answer: A Explanation: Lipomas are the most common benign soft tissue tumors, composed of mature adipose tissue. Question 43. Developmental abnormalities of the lower limb include all EXCEPT: A) Tarsal coalition B) Congenital vertical talus C) Genu valgum D) Osteoid osteoma Answer: D Explanation: Osteoid osteoma is a benign tumor, not a developmental abnormality; the others are congenital deformities. Question 44. Which of the following is an indication for surgical correction of scoliosis? A) Cobb angle greater than 45-50 degrees in a growing child B) Cobb angle less than 20 degrees in an adult C) Mild curvature with no progression
D) Asymptomatic minor deformity Answer: A Explanation: Surgical intervention is typically indicated for curves greater than 45- 50 degrees, especially if progressive or in a growing child. Question 45. The main purpose of a Pavlik harness in pediatric orthopedics is to: A) Maintain hip flexion and abduction to treat DDH B) Correct clubfoot deformity C) Stabilize a fractured femur D) Reduce scoliotic curves Answer: A Explanation: The Pavlik harness maintains hip flexion and abduction, promoting proper joint development in DDH. Question 46. Which pediatric tumor is characterized by EWS-FLI1 fusion gene? A) Ewing’s sarcoma B) Osteosarcoma C) Rhabdomyosarcoma D) Fibrous dysplasia Answer: A Explanation: Ewing’s sarcoma often involves the EWS-FLI1 fusion gene, aiding in diagnosis.
