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Certified Software Quality EngineerExam

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1.Software security is developed to address which of the following types of communication threats? A. Intentional attacks B. Unintentional attacks C. Physical attacks D. Natural disasters Answer: A Explanation: Software security is designed to protect systems and data from various types of communication threats. These threats can be categorized as: Intentional Attacks: These are deliberate actions taken by malicious individuals or groups aiming to exploit software vulnerabilities for gain, disruption, or espionage. Examples include hacking, phishing, and malware attacks. Unintentional Attacks: These are accidental events that can cause security breaches, such as user errors or software bugs. Physical Attacks: These involve physical actions against hardware that can affect software, like theft or damage. Natural Disasters: Events such as earthquakes or floods that can physically damage systems and cause software failures. Among these, software security primarily addresses intentional attacks. The focus is on preventing unauthorized access, data breaches, and other forms of cyber attacks. Reference: "Software Security: Building Security In" by Gary McGraw NIST Special Publication 800-53, Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations

2.Which of the following activities should be classified as an internal failure cost? A. Responding to customer satisfaction B. Completing an internal audit C. Shipping a maintenance build D. Investigating the cause of build defects Answer: D Explanation: Internal failure costs are costs associated with defects found before the product reaches the customer. These costs include: Investigation of defects: Identifying and analyzing defects within the development process. Rework: Fixing defects found during internal testing or audits. Scrap: Discarding defective parts or products. Downtime: Halting production or development to address defects. Among the given options, investigating the cause of build defects is an internal failure

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CSA ensures that all stakeholders are informed about the status and history of configuration items. Reference: "Software Configuration Management Patterns: Effective Teamwork, Practical Integration" by Stephen P. Berczuk and Brad Appleton IEEE Standard for Software Configuration Management Plans (IEEE Std 828)

5.Which of the following problem-solving tools is most appropriate for breaking down ideas into progressively greater detail? A. Tree diagram B. Matrix diagram C. Affinity diagram D. Relationship diagram Answer: A Explanation: A tree diagram is a tool used to break down broad categories into finer levels of detail. It is particularly useful for: Hierarchical Decomposition: Breaking down complex ideas or processes into manageable sub-components. Problem Solving: Identifying root causes and exploring solutions systematically. Project Planning: Defining tasks and sub-tasks in a structured manner. The tree diagram starts with a single node and branches out into multiple nodes, each representing a more detailed aspect of the main topic. Reference: "The Quality Toolbox" by Nancy R. Tague "The Memory Jogger II: A Pocket Guide of Tools for Continuous Improvement and Effective Planning" by Michael Brassard and Diane Ritter

6.When a software change order is reviewed by the change control board (CCB), it is assigned a status from which of the following sets of classifications? A. Accepted, evaluated, m progress B. Approved, disapproved, deferred C. Escalated, rejected, in progress D. Escalated, proposed, accepted Answer: B Explanation: When a software change order is reviewed by the Change Control Board (CCB), it undergoes a formal assessment to determine the impact and feasibility of the change. The CCB typically assigns one of the following statuses: Approved: The change is accepted and will be implemented. Disapproved: The change is rejected and will not be implemented. Deferred: The decision on the change is postponed, often pending further information

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or consideration. These classifications help in managing changes systematically, ensuring only feasible and beneficial changes are made to the software system. Reference: IEEE Standard for Configuration Management in Systems and Software Engineering (IEEE Std 828-2012) Software Engineering Body of Knowledge (SWEBOK)

7.Coverage monitors are used during which of the following types of testing? A. Black-box B. White-box C. Stress D. Equivalence partitioning Answer: B Explanation: Coverage monitors are tools used to measure the extent to which the source code of a program is executed when a particular test suite runs. This is a key aspect of white- box testing, which involves testing the internal structures or workings of an application, as opposed to its functionality (which is the focus of black-box testing). Coverage monitoring helps in identifying parts of the code that are not executed by a set of test cases, ensuring thorough testing and identifying untested paths. Reference: "Software Testing: Principles and Practices" by Naresh Chauhan "Software Testing Techniques" by Boris Beizer

8.Which of the following libraries would be most appropriate for a tester to use when experimenting with different test case designs? A. Static B. Backup C. Dynamic D. Controlled Answer: C Explanation: The lead auditor acts as the final arbitrator for any audit-related issues that cannot be handled at a lower level. This individual is responsible for the overall conduct of the audit, ensuring that the audit is performed according to the plan and that all findings are appropriately addressed and resolved. The lead auditor has the authority to make final decisions on disputes or issues that arise during the audit process, ensuring objectivity and adherence to audit standards. Reference: ISO 19011: Guidelines for Auditing Management Systems "Internal Auditing: Assurance & Advisory Services" by Urton L. Anderson, Michael J. Head, et al.

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Assessing the Deviation: Understanding the root cause and impact of the deviation on the project. Adjusting the Plan: Making necessary adjustments to realign the project with its original goals. Updating Stakeholders: Keeping stakeholders informed about the changes and the new plan. Monitoring Progress: Continuously monitoring the project's progress to ensure it remains on track after the adjustments. This approach allows the project to stay aligned with its original objectives while addressing the issues causing the deviations. Reference: PMBOK Guide by Project Management Institute (PMI) "Project Management: A Systems Approach to Planning, Scheduling, and Controlling" by Harold Kerzner

12.A software quality engineer (SQE > is testing software in a system used to monitor critically ill patients and administer dosages of life-sustaining medicines Tests reveal a flaw that could result in an unscheduled shutdown under certain circumstances. Ox er the SQE's verbal and written objections: the director of engineering decides to ship the system. The SQE knows from experience that "whistle-blowers" in the company have lost their jobs The most appropriate next step for the SQE would be to A. gam support from workers B. inform the customer C. discuss with top management D. remain silent Answer: C Explanation: In a situation where a software quality engineer (SQE) identifies a critical flaw and the immediate superior decides to proceed despite the risk, the most appropriate next step is to discuss the issue with top management. This involves: Documenting the Issue: Clearly outlining the flaw, its potential impact, and the SQE's objections. Escalating the Concern: Bringing the issue to the attention of higher management levels who have the authority to reconsider the decision. Focusing on Safety: Emphasizing the critical nature of the flaw, especially in a system used for monitoring critically ill patients. This step ensures that the concerns are heard at the highest level, potentially preventing a decision that could endanger lives and the company's reputation. Reference: "Software Quality Assurance: Principles and Practice" by Nina S. Godbole IEEE Code of Ethics

13.Which of the following activities is classified as data collection and storage? A. Installing and administering data technology

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B. Supporting data technology usage and related issues C. Confirming adequacy, uniqueness, and consistency of data D. Providing mechanisms that support data availability requirements Answer: C Explanation: Data collection and storage activities are focused on ensuring that the data is adequate, unique, and consistent. This involves: Adequacy: Ensuring that the collected data meets the necessary requirements for its intended use. Uniqueness: Verifying that the data is not duplicated and is uniquely identifiable. Consistency: Ensuring that the data is consistent across different datasets and over time. These activities are critical for maintaining the integrity and reliability of the data, which is essential for effective data analysis and decision-making. Reference: "Data Quality: The Accuracy Dimension" by Jack E. Olson "Data Management for Researchers" by Kristin Briney

14.The software configuration management (SCM) planning process includes A. identifying; analyzing; and mitigating SCM risks B. establishing and documenting SCM policies for the organization C. monitoring the performance and effectiveness of SCM processes D. defining the specific SCM roles and responsibilities for the project Answer: D Explanation: The software configuration management (SCM) planning process includes defining the specific SCM roles and responsibilities for the project. This involves: Role Identification: Identifying all roles related to SCM, such as SCM Manager, SCM Engineer, and Configuration Librarian. Responsibility Assignment: Clearly defining the responsibilities associated with each role. Documentation: Documenting these roles and responsibilities in the SCM plan to ensure clarity and accountability. This step is crucial for establishing a clear framework for managing configuration items and changes throughout the project lifecycle. Reference: "Software Configuration Management Patterns: Effective Teamwork, Practical Integration" by Stephen P. Berczuk and Brad Appleton IEEE Standard for Software Configuration Management Plans (IEEE Std 828)

15.Which of the following is a management practice that will provide business

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17.A software maintenance release is conducted to deliver new A. features B. functionality C. defect corrections D. software products Answer: A Explanation: Outsourcing is a business practice where a company hires an external organization to perform tasks, handle operations, or provide services. One key advantage of outsourcing is that it allows the primary company to focus its resources on its core competencies. By delegating non-core activities to external specialists, the company can concentrate on what it does best, thereby enhancing efficiency, innovation, and competitive advantage in its primary market. Reference: "The Outsourcing Revolution" by Michael F. Corbett IEEE Software Engineering Body of Knowledge (SWEBOK), Chapter on Software Engineering Management

18.Which of the following documents must be under configuration control? A. Problem issues B. Control chains C. Test procedures D. Burn charts Answer: C Explanation: Test procedures must be under configuration control to ensure that all testing activities are performed consistently and according to the specified standards. Configuration control involves managing changes systematically so that the integrity and traceability of the testing process are maintained. This helps in ensuring that the tests are repeatable and that any changes in the procedures are documented and approved. Reference: "Configuration Management Principles and Practice" by Anne Mette Jonassen Hass IEEE Standard for Configuration Management in Systems and Software Engineering (IEEE Std 828-2012)

19.Which of the following software metrics is based on a nominal scale- A. Root cause of defect, logic error data definition, etc B. Severing of a defect, critical, major, minor, etc. C. Defect density: number per function point, etc. D. Defect discovery rate: number detected per day, etc. Answer: A Explanation:

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Nominal scales are used in measurement to categorize data without any order or priority. They are the simplest form of measurement scale and are used to group items into distinct categories based on names or labels123. Root cause of defect (Option A): This fits the nominal scale as it involves categorizing defects based on their root causes, such as logic errors or data definitions. These categories are mutually exclusive and do not have a natural order1. Severity of a defect (Option B): This is an example of an ordinal scale, not a nominal scale. The severity levels (critical, major, minor) imply a ranking or order of importance or impact2. Defect density (Option C): This metric uses a ratio scale as it involves a quantitative measure (number of defects) relative to the size of the software (function points), which has a true zero point and allows for meaningful comparisons between measurements2. Defect discovery rate (Option D): This is also a ratio scale because it measures the rate of defect detection over time (number detected per day), which is a quantitative assessment that allows for arithmetic operations

20.A software developer is replacing a higher level code with a test code that establishes a function and passes test data to that function. What type of test environment is the developer using A. Regression B. Static C. Driver D. Stub Answer: C Explanation: In software testing, a driver is a piece of code that replaces a higher-level module to test a lower-level module by establishing a function and passing test data to that function. Drivers are used in bottom-up integration testing to simulate the behavior of higher-level modules that have not yet been developed or integrated. Reference: "Software Testing and Quality Assurance: Theory and Practice" by Kshirasagar Naik and Priyadarshi Tripathy IEEE Standard for Software Unit Testing (IEEE Std 1008-1987)

21.Which of the following types of audits is most often based on customer requirements? A. Process B. Product C. System D. Quality Answer: B Explanation:

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24.Which of the following baselines is typically established after completion and approval of system requirements? A. Product B. Allocated C. Functional D. Development Answer: C Explanation: The functional baseline is typically established after the completion and approval of system requirements. This baseline includes the functional requirements and specifications that describe what the system is supposed to do. It serves as a reference point for further development and testing, ensuring that all subsequent work aligns with the agreed-upon functional requirements.

25.Which of the following benefits is associated with using the iterative model? A. It can be tailored to the needs of the project and organization. B. It does not require knowledge of all the requirements up front. C. It correlates directly to the deliverables of software development. D. It focuses on exploring options early by feedback through prototyping Answer: B Explanation: The iterative model benefits projects by allowing development to start without having all the requirements fully defined upfront. This model supports ongoing refinement through repeated cycles (iterations) of planning, development, and feedback. Each iteration builds upon previous work, allowing teams to adapt to changes and new information, which is particularly useful in projects with evolving requirements or high uncertainty.

26.Which of the following must be included in a software defect report to track detection effectiveness? A. Who found the defect B. The phase the defect was introduced C. Root cause of the defect D. Software component containing the defect Answer: B Explanation: Purpose of Tracking Defects: The goal is to understand not only where defects are found but also where they originate. This allows for better prevention strategies and process improvements. Importance of Defect Introduction Phase: Knowing the phase

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where the defect was introduced helps in pinpointing weak areas in the development process. This can lead to targeted improvements. Effectiveness in Detection: To effectively track detection efficiency, it is crucial to map defects back to their introduction phase to analyze and optimize earlier phases for defect prevention.

27.When a team is defining a software metrics program, which of the following steps must be taken first? A. Determine what data to collect. B. Collect preliminary data C. Establish the data collection goal. D. Select the metrics to report Answer: C Explanation: Setting Goals: Before data can be effectively collected and utilized, it’s essential to have clear goals. This ensures that the data collection process is aligned with the organization's objectives. Importance of Goals: Establishing the data collection goal ensures that the team collects relevant and meaningful data, which can be analyzed to improve processes and products. Sequential Process: After setting goals, the team can then determine what specific data to collect, how to collect it, and which metrics to report. This ensures a systematic approach to metrics program development.

28.An organization uses the plan-do-check-act (PDCA) cycle to align its processes to an international quality standard, which of the following activities would be performed during the "act" step? A. Identifying actions to be performed during the pilot B. Performing internal audits of the system C. Making quality system revisions D. Documenting the problems to present to management Answer: C Explanation: PDCA Cycle Overview: The Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle is a continuous improvement process used to align processes with quality standards. Act Phase: In the 'Act' step, the organization acts on the findings from the 'Check' step to implement changes that improve the process. This typically involves making revisions to the quality system. Quality Improvements: By making revisions based on the findings from audits and performance evaluations, the organization continuously improves its processes and aligns them better with international standards.

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requirements phase through the maintenance phase of the software lifecycle. This comprehensive approach ensures that all changes to software artifacts are systematically controlled and tracked throughout the lifecycle, from initial requirements gathering, through development and testing, and into maintenance and updates after deployment. Effective configuration management helps maintain consistency, traceability, and control over software changes, which is crucial for maintaining software quality and compliance.

32.Which of the following is a responsibility of a lead auditor? A. Submitting the audit report B. Determining the scope of the audit C. Determining the corrective actions required D. Performing the initial review of the quality system Answer: B Explanation: The lead auditor is responsible for determining the scope of the audit. This involves defining the boundaries of the audit, including which processes, departments, and activities will be examined. The lead auditor ensures that the audit objectives are clear and that the audit plan effectively covers the necessary areas to assess compliance and performance against specified standards and requirements.

33.A company uses a feature rating system with the following values. 1 = Completely dissatisfied 2 = Somewhat dissatisfied 3 = Neither satisfied nor dissatisfied 4 = Somewhat satisfied 5 = Completely satisfied This rating system is based on what type of measurement scale? A. Nominal B. Ordinal C. Interval D. Ratio Answer: B Explanation: The feature rating system described (1 = Completely dissatisfied, 2 = Somewhat dissatisfied, 3 = Neither satisfied nor dissatisfied, 4 = Somewhat satisfied, 5 = Completely satisfied) is based on an ordinal measurement scale. Ordinal scales categorize data into distinct groups that have a meaningful order or ranking, but the intervals between the ranks are not necessarily equal. In this case, the ratings provide a rank order of satisfaction levels.

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34.Which of the following benefits is related to DevOps when it is used to facilitate development activities? A. Reducing time to market B. Minimizing software releases C. Increasing return on investment D. Standardizing organizational processes Answer: A Explanation: DevOps facilitates development activities by reducing time to market. DevOps practices integrate development and operations, promoting continuous integration, continuous delivery, and automation of deployment processes. This streamlines the software development lifecycle, allowing for faster and more reliable releases, which ultimately reduces the time it takes to deliver new features and updates to customers.

35.At what point in the development lifecycle should change control be implemented? A. During the requirements phase B. During the implementation phase C. At the beginning of the design phase D. When the testing phase begins Answer: A Explanation: Change control should be implemented during the requirements phase of the development lifecycle. Early implementation of change control ensures that any changes to the requirements are managed systematically from the outset, maintaining traceability and minimizing the risk of scope creep. This helps ensure that all subsequent phases of the project are based on well-documented and approved requirements, contributing to overall project stability and quality.

36.Which of the following steps comes first during release planning for waterfall-type projects? A. Define the scope of the software being developed. B. Determine which problems will be corrected in the next release. C. Select the set of requirements that will be included in the release. D. Confirm the implemented software meets the specified requirements. Answer: A Explanation: Scope Definition: In the waterfall model, the first step in release planning is to define the scope of the software. This involves understanding what the software is supposed to do, the boundaries of the project, and the major features and functionalities to be included.

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The program manager should be most concerned about which module? A. S B. T C. U D. V Answer: C Explanation: Error Analysis: Module U has the highest total number of errors per KLOC, with significant issues in header comments (H), commented out code (C), and data initialization errors (D).

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Quality Concern: The high error rate indicates potential underlying quality issues in Module U that need to be addressed to improve overall software quality. Prioritization: According to defect prioritization guidelines, modules with the highest error rates should be investigated and corrected first to mitigate risks and improve reliability.

39.To increase the likelihood of the success of a software project, the project plan should meet which of the following requirements? A. It should be completed before the project activities begin. B. It should be reviewed and updated at each phase of the project. C. It should be developed by an independent software developer D. It should be approved by the steering committee. Answer: B Explanation: Dynamic Planning: A project plan that is reviewed and updated at each phase ensures that it remains relevant and accurate, reflecting any changes in scope, resources, or timelines. Continuous Improvement: Regular updates allow for continuous improvement and alignment with project goals and stakeholder expectations. Standards and Guidelines: Project management standards, such as those outlined by the Project Management Institute (PMI), advocate for iterative review and updating of project plans.

40.In the archival process, retention of historical records is A. not required B. set for at least 2 years C. needed for all documents D. specified by the organization Answer: D Explanation: Organizational Policies: The retention of historical records is typically governed by organizational policies, which are designed to comply with legal, regulatory, and business requirements. Retention Periods: These policies specify the duration for which records need to be retained, ensuring that important historical data is available for future reference, audits, and compliance checks. Reference: Industry standards and guidelines, such as those from ISO and regulatory bodies, provide frameworks for establishing record retention policies tailored to organizational needs.

41.Which of the following categories describes acquirer-type stakeholders?