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Question 1. Which component of the CAMS model primarily addresses the removal of organizational silos? A) Culture B) Automation C) Measurement D) Sharing Answer: A Explanation: Culture focuses on fostering collaboration and breaking down silos, enabling cross‑functional teamwork. Question 2. In the Three Ways of DevOps, which way emphasizes “feedback loops” to improve processes? A) The First Way B) The Second Way C) The Third Way D) The Fourth Way Answer: B Explanation: The Second Way is about creating fast feedback loops from operations back to development. Question 3. Which phase of the DevOps lifecycle follows “Build”? A) Test B) Release C) Deploy D) Operate Answer: A Explanation: After building artifacts, the next logical step is testing them before release.
Question 4. What is the primary goal of “digital transformation” in a DevOps context? A) Reducing hardware costs B) Automating all manual tasks C) Aligning technology initiatives with business outcomes D) Migrating to the cloud only Answer: C Explanation: Digital transformation seeks to ensure technology delivers measurable business value. Question 5. “Cultural debt” refers to: A) Outdated infrastructure code B) Unresolved legacy security policies C) Accumulated resistance to change within an organization D) Unpaid licensing fees Answer: C Explanation: Cultural debt is the cost of not addressing cultural resistance, which hampers DevOps adoption. Question 6. Which IaC approach declares the desired end state rather than the steps to achieve it? A) Imperative B) Declarative C) Procedural D) Scripted Answer: B
Answer: B Explanation: AWS Lambda is the Function‑as‑a‑Service offering for serverless execution. Question 10. “Drift management” in IaC refers to: A) Tracking changes in source code branches B) Detecting differences between declared and actual infrastructure C) Monitoring network latency D) Managing version numbers of Docker images Answer: B Explanation: Drift occurs when live infrastructure diverges from the IaC definition; managing drift reconciles them. Question 11. Which Git branching model encourages a single long‑living branch for production? A) GitFlow B) Feature‑Branch C) Trunk‑Based Development D) Release‑Branch Answer: C Explanation: Trunk‑Based Development uses a main branch (trunk) with short‑lived feature toggles. Question 12. In Git, what does the command git rebase primarily accomplish? A) Merges two branches preserving history B) Rewrites commits to appear as if they were made on top of another base C) Deletes the current branch D) Creates a new tag
Answer: B Explanation: Rebase moves a series of commits onto a new base, producing a linear history. Question 13. Which CI tool uses a “pipeline as code” approach via a Jenkinsfile? A) Travis CI B) CircleCI C) Jenkins D) Bamboo Answer: C Explanation: Jenkins pipelines are defined in a Jenkinsfile, enabling versioned pipeline code. Question 14. A “Blue/Green” deployment strategy aims to: A) Deploy two versions simultaneously to compare performance B) Roll out changes gradually to a subset of users C) Switch traffic from old to new environment with minimal downtime D) Deploy to a canary server first Answer: C Explanation: Blue/Green maintains two identical environments and switches traffic to the new one instantly. Question 15. Which artifact repository is commonly used for Docker images? A) Nexus B) Artifactory C) Docker Hub D) All of the above Answer: D
Question 19. What does “self‑healing” in a Kubernetes cluster refer to? A) Automatic patching of the OS B) Restarting failed pods automatically C) Scaling the cluster based on CPU usage D) Encrypting secrets at rest Answer: B Explanation: Self‑healing means the control plane replaces unhealthy pods automatically. Question 20. Which pattern is most suitable for gradually exposing a new feature to a percentage of users? A) Blue/Green B) Canary C) A/B Testing D) Rolling Update Answer: B Explanation: Canary releases route a small portion of traffic to the new version before full rollout. Question 21. “Shift‑Left” security primarily means: A) Performing security testing after production release B) Integrating security checks early in the development pipeline C) Outsourcing security to a third party D) Using left‑handed encryption keys Answer: B Explanation: Shift‑Left moves security activities upstream to catch issues sooner.
Question 22. Which tool is specifically designed for static application security testing (SAST)? A) OWASP ZAP B) SonarQube C) Burp Suite D) Nessus Answer: B Explanation: SonarQube includes SAST capabilities to analyze source code for vulnerabilities. Question 23. HashiCorp Vault is used for: A) Container orchestration B) Secrets management and dynamic credential generation C) Continuous integration D) Log aggregation Answer: B Explanation: Vault securely stores and provides dynamic secrets to applications and pipelines. Question 24. “Policy as Code” enables: A) Writing firewall rules in YAML B) Automating compliance checks through programmable policies C) Storing policies in a Git repository only D) None of the above Answer: B Explanation: Policy as Code treats compliance rules as executable code, allowing automated enforcement.
A) The total number of bugs allowed per release B) The amount of downtime permissible while still meeting the SLO C) The budget allocated for security tools D) The number of failed builds allowed per week Answer: B Explanation: Error budget quantifies acceptable failure time, balancing reliability and innovation. Question 29. Chaos engineering experiments typically start by: A) Deploying a new version to production B) Introducing a controlled failure to observe system behavior C) Scaling the database horizontally D) Updating TLS certificates Answer: B Explanation: Chaos engineering deliberately injects failures to test resilience. Question 30. Which alerting tool integrates natively with Prometheus for rule‑based alerts? A) Grafana B) Alertmanager C) PagerDuty D) Splunk Answer: B Explanation: Alertmanager receives alerts from Prometheus and routes them to notification channels. Question 31. In the CAMS model, “Measurement” primarily focuses on: A) Defining cultural values
B) Automating deployments C) Collecting data to drive improvements D) Sharing knowledge across teams Answer: C Explanation: Measurement gathers metrics that inform decisions and continuous improvement. Question 32. Which of the following is a characteristic of an “immutable” Docker image? A) It can be edited after creation B) It is built once and never changed; updates require a new image C) It automatically updates its base OS D) It stores logs internally Answer: B Explanation: Immutable images are never modified; changes are made by building a new version. Question 33. Terraform’s “state file” is used to: A) Store secret keys B) Track the real‑world resources created by the configuration C) Define variables for modules D) Generate documentation Answer: B Explanation: The state file records the mapping between IaC code and actual infrastructure. Question 34. Which Azure service provides serverless functions similar to AWS Lambda? A) Azure Virtual Machines B) Azure Functions
D) Kustomize Answer: B Explanation: Flagger automates canary promotion by monitoring defined metrics. Question 38. What is the primary purpose of a “Service Mesh” like Istio? A) Container image storage B) Managing inter‑service communication, security, and observability C) Deploying virtual machines D) Automating IaC scripts Answer: B Explanation: Service meshes provide traffic management, mTLS, and telemetry for microservices. Question 39. Which practice helps to avoid “configuration drift” in cloud environments? A) Manual SSH configuration B) Using immutable infrastructure and IaC tools C) Frequent OS patches without testing D) Storing credentials in code Answer: B Explanation: Immutable infrastructure ensures environments are recreated from source, preventing drift. Question 40. In GitLab CI, the keyword only in a job definition is used to: A) Restrict the job to run on specific branches or tags B) Limit the job to a single runner C) Prevent the job from accessing the cache D) Disable the job completely
Answer: A Explanation: only specifies conditions (branches, tags) under which the job executes. Question 41. Which of the following is a benefit of “feature toggles” in continuous delivery? A) Eliminates the need for testing B) Allows incomplete features to be merged without affecting users C) Guarantees zero bugs in production D) Replaces the need for version control Answer: B Explanation: Feature toggles let developers ship code behind a switch, decoupling deployment from release. Question 42. A “deployment pipeline” differs from a “delivery pipeline” mainly in that it: A) Includes production deployment steps B) Stops before production, delivering artifacts to a staging area C) Is only used for mobile apps D) Does not involve testing Answer: B Explanation: Delivery pipelines produce deployable artifacts; deployment pipelines also push them to production. Question 43. Which command retrieves the current Terraform plan without applying changes? A) terraform apply B) terraform plan C) terraform init
Explanation: Rolling updates replace pods gradually, preserving service availability. Question 47. Which of the following is a key principle of Site Reliability Engineering? A) Eliminating all incidents B) Managing risk through error budgets and SLOs C) Deploying only on weekends D) Using only proprietary tools Answer: B Explanation: SRE balances reliability and velocity using error budgets and defined SLOs. Question 48. What does “observability” extend beyond traditional monitoring? A) Only logging events B) Ability to infer internal system state from external outputs (metrics, logs, traces) C) Passive data collection without alerts D) Manual inspection of code Answer: B Explanation: Observability combines metrics, logs, and traces to understand system behavior. Question 49. Which tool is commonly used for distributed tracing in microservices? A) Prometheus B) Jaeger C) Nagios D) Zabbix Answer: B Explanation: Jaeger collects and visualizes trace data across service boundaries.
Question 50. In a CI/CD context, “artifact promotion” means: A) Deleting old artifacts automatically B) Moving a build artifact from a lower environment (e.g., dev) to a higher one (e.g., prod) after validation C) Changing the artifact’s filename D) Rebuilding the artifact from source code Answer: B Explanation: Promotion validates and advances artifacts through environments without rebuilding. Question 51. Which Kubernetes resource type is used to store non‑confidential configuration data as key‑value pairs? A) Secret B) ConfigMap C) PersistentVolume D) ServiceAccount Answer: B Explanation: ConfigMaps hold configuration data that can be injected into pods. Question 52. Which practice helps to reduce “cultural debt” during DevOps transformation? A) Mandating overtime for all developers B) Conducting regular cross‑team retrospectives and knowledge sharing sessions C) Removing all documentation D) Centralizing all decisions to a single manager Answer: B Explanation: Continuous feedback and shared learning address cultural resistance.
Question 56. Which metric would best indicate a database connection pool exhaustion issue? A) CPU usage B) Number of open connections reaching the pool limit C) Disk I/O latency D) Network packet loss Answer: B Explanation: Exhausted connection pools manifest as hitting the maximum open connections metric. Question 57. What is the purpose of a “helm chart” in Kubernetes? A) To define CI pipelines B) To package Kubernetes resources for easy deployment and versioning C) To monitor cluster health D) To manage IAM roles Answer: B Explanation: Helm charts bundle manifests, enabling reusable and versioned deployments. Question 58. Which of the following is a common “anti‑pattern” in CI/CD pipelines? A) Running tests in parallel B. Caching dependencies across builds C) Using a single monolithic repository for unrelated services without isolation D) Automating rollbacks Answer: C Explanation: A monolithic repo without service boundaries can cause unnecessary coupling and longer build times.
Question 59. In the context of DevSecOps, “DAST” stands for: A) Dynamic Application Security Testing B) Data Access Security Tool C) Distributed Automated Scanning Technique D) Development Assurance Security Test Answer: A Explanation: DAST evaluates a running application for security flaws. Question 60. Which cloud‑native logging format is optimized for high‑throughput ingestion? A) Plain text B) JSON C) XML D) CSV Answer: B Explanation: JSON logs are structured and easily parsed by logging pipelines like ELK. Question 61. The “Three Ways” of DevOps emphasize which of the following as the first way? A) Amplify feedback B) Create a culture of learning C) Optimize the flow of work from development to operations D) Automate everything Answer: C Explanation: The First Way focuses on the smooth flow of value through the pipeline. Question 62. Which tool is primarily used for infrastructure drift detection in AWS?
