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Question 1. Which of the following best describes the CAMS model in DevOps? A) Culture, Automation, Measurement, Sharing B) Continuous, Agile, Metrics, Security C) Collaboration, Architecture, Monitoring, Scaling D) Code, Build, Deploy, Operate Answer: A Explanation: CAMS stands for Culture, Automation, Measurement, and Sharing – the four pillars that underpin successful DevOps transformations. Question 2. In the Three Ways of DevOps, the “First Way” focuses on: A) Accelerating feedback loops B) Establishing a culture of learning C) Optimizing the flow of work from development to operations D) Automating security testing Answer: C Explanation: The First Way emphasizes the efficient flow of work, ensuring that code moves smoothly from development through testing to production. Question 3. Which stage of the DevOps lifecycle directly follows “Build”? A) Test B) Release C) Deploy D) Operate Answer: A Explanation: After building the artifact, the next logical step is to test it before releasing to production.
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Question 4. The primary purpose of “breaking silos” in an organization is to: A) Reduce the number of tools used B) Increase departmental budgets C) Promote cross-functional collaboration and shared responsibility D) Centralize decision-making in a single team Answer: C Explanation: Breaking silos removes barriers between teams, fostering collaboration and shared ownership of the delivery pipeline. Question 5. In a digital transformation initiative, DevOps most directly helps organizations to: A) Replace all legacy systems with new hardware B) Align technology delivery with business outcomes through faster, reliable releases C) Outsource all development work D) Increase the number of manual testing processes Answer: B Explanation: DevOps accelerates delivery and improves quality, directly supporting business goals in digital transformation. Question 6. “Cultural debt” refers to: A) Technical debt incurred by using outdated libraries B) The accumulation of resistant attitudes and practices that hinder DevOps adoption C) Unpaid licensing fees for DevOps tools D) The cost of training new hires Answer: B
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Answer: C Explanation: Chef uses recipes that describe step-by-step actions, representing an imperative approach. Question 10. A key benefit of using serverless (FaaS) platforms is: A) Complete control over the underlying OS B) Reduced operational overhead because the cloud provider manages the runtime environment C) Ability to run long-running background processes indefinitely D) Guaranteed fixed cost per month Answer: B Explanation: Serverless abstracts away server management, allowing developers to focus on code while the provider handles scaling and maintenance. Question 11. Terraform’s “state file” is used to: A) Store encrypted secrets for the deployment B) Track the current real-world resources so Terraform can detect drift C) Define the policy as code for compliance checks D) Generate Docker images Answer: B Explanation: The state file records the existing infrastructure, enabling Terraform to compare desired vs. actual states. Question 12. In GitFlow, which branch is intended for preparing a production release? A) feature/* B) develop
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C) release/* D) hotfix/* Answer: C Explanation: The release branch collects final changes, runs final testing, and is merged into master/main for production. Question 13. Trunk-based development encourages teams to: A) Create long-lived feature branches B) Merge to the main branch at least once a day C) Use separate repositories for each microservice D) Avoid any branching altogether Answer: B Explanation: Trunk-based development promotes frequent integration to the main line (trunk) to reduce merge conflicts. Question 14. Which of the following CI tools is a cloud-native solution offered by GitLab? A) Jenkins B) Bamboo C) GitLab CI/CD D) TeamCity Answer: C Explanation: GitLab CI/CD is built into the GitLab platform and provides cloud-native pipeline capabilities. Question 15. In a multi-stage CI/CD pipeline, the stage that typically runs static code analysis is placed:
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Question 18. An artifact registry such as JFrog Artifactory is used to: A) Store source code only B) Host Docker images, Maven packages, and other build outputs securely for downstream consumption C) Manage Kubernetes cluster nodes D) Perform static code analysis Answer: B Explanation: Artifact repositories store compiled binaries, container images, and other build artifacts for reuse. Question 19. Which Dockerfile instruction adds a file from the host into the image? A) COPY B) RUN C) FROM D) ENTRYPOINT Answer: A Explanation: The COPY instruction copies files/directories from the build context into the image filesystem. Question 20. In Docker networking, the default bridge network provides: A) Automatic service discovery across hosts B) Isolation between containers on the same host with NAT translation C) Direct host-to-container communication without port mapping D) Encrypted traffic between containers Answer: B
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Explanation: The bridge network isolates containers and uses NAT to allow communication with the host and other containers. Question 21. A Kubernetes Pod is best described as: A) A single virtual machine B) The smallest deployable unit that can contain one or more tightly coupled containers sharing network and storage C) A load balancer for services D) A persistent storage volume Answer: B Explanation: Pods encapsulate containers that share an IP address, port space, and volume mounts. Question 22. Which Kubernetes object provides a stable IP address and DNS name for a set of Pods? A) Deployment B) Service C) ConfigMap D) StatefulSet Answer: B Explanation: Services abstract a group of Pods, offering a stable endpoint for communication. Question 23. Rolling updates in Kubernetes are achieved by configuring: A) A Service with type LoadBalancer B) A Deployment’s strategy field to RollingUpdate C) A ConfigMap with version numbers D) An Ingress resource
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C) Grafana D) SonarQube Answer: B Explanation: Vault provides secure storage, dynamic secret generation, and fine-grained access control for Kubernetes. Question 27. Policy as Code enables organizations to: A) Write business policies in natural language only B) Automate compliance checks by encoding rules in code that can be versioned and tested C) Replace all human auditors with robots D) Store policies in a relational database Answer: B Explanation: Policy as Code treats compliance policies as programmable artifacts, allowing automated enforcement. Question 28. Which of the following is a static application security testing (SAST) tool? A. OWASP ZAP B. SonarQube C. Trivy D. Jenkins Answer: B Explanation: SonarQube analyzes source code for vulnerabilities without executing the program, which is characteristic of SAST. Question 29. To continuously scan container images for known vulnerabilities, a DevSecOps pipeline would most likely integrate:
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A. Docker Compose B. Trivy or Clair C. Ansible D. Terraform Answer: B Explanation: Trivy and Clair are image scanning tools that detect CVEs in container layers during CI/CD. Question 30. In the context of observability, “three pillars” refer to: A. Logging, Metrics, Traces B. CPU, Memory, Disk C. Alerts, Dashboards, Reports D. Code, Build, Deploy Answer: A Explanation: The three pillars—logs, metrics, and distributed traces—provide comprehensive insight into system behavior. Question 31. Prometheus stores time-series data using which storage model? A. Relational tables B. Key-value pairs in memory only C. A custom on-disk format optimized for time-series D. Object storage in S Answer: C Explanation: Prometheus uses a purpose-built on-disk format (TSDB) for efficient time-series storage and retrieval.
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Explanation: Error budgets quantify the tolerated level of unreliability, enabling controlled risk-taking. Question 35. Chaos engineering experiments typically begin with: A) Deploying a new microservice B) Defining a hypothesis about system behavior under failure C) Scaling the database to maximum size D) Performing a code review Answer: B Explanation: A hypothesis guides the experiment, stating expected outcomes when injecting faults. Question 36. Which open-source tool is widely used for chaos testing in Kubernetes? A) Istio B) LitmusChaos C) Prometheus D) Helm Answer: B Explanation: LitmusChaos provides a catalog of chaos experiments specifically for Kubernetes environments. Question 37. An incident response run-book should include all EXCEPT: A) Step-by-step remediation actions B) Contact information for stakeholders C) Detailed source code of all services D) Post-mortem analysis procedures
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Answer: C Explanation: While source code may be referenced, it is not typically part of a run-book; the focus is on actions, contacts, and follow-up. Question 38. Which of the following best describes “drift” in IaC? A) A gradual increase in code size over time B) When the actual state of infrastructure diverges from the declared state in code C) The latency introduced by network hops D) The process of scaling resources automatically Answer: B Explanation: Drift occurs when manual changes or external factors cause the live environment to differ from the IaC definition. Question 39. In Terraform, the command to preview changes without applying them is: A) terraform apply B) terraform plan C) terraform init D) terraform destroy Answer: B Explanation: terraform plan shows the execution plan, highlighting additions, modifications, and deletions. Question 40. Which of the following is a key advantage of using GitOps for Kubernetes deployments? A) Manual editing of cluster manifests on the server B) Declarative management of cluster state via version-controlled Git repositories, enabling automated synchronization C) Eliminating the need for any CI/CD pipeline
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B) Moving a validated artifact from a lower-trust repository (e.g., dev) to a higher-trust one (e.g., prod) after passing tests C) Converting a binary into source code D) Scaling the number of build agents Answer: B Explanation: Promotion advances an artifact through environments after meeting quality gates. Question 44. Which of the following is NOT a typical responsibility of a DevOps engineer? A) Automating infrastructure provisioning B) Writing production-grade application code exclusively C) Implementing CI/CD pipelines D) Monitoring system health and performance Answer: B Explanation: While DevOps engineers may write some code, they are not primarily responsible for full-scale application development. Question 45. The “pull request” workflow in Git is primarily used to: A) Directly push changes to the main branch without review B) Propose changes, enable peer review, and merge after approval C) Delete old branches automatically D) Synchronize repositories across different cloud providers Answer: B Explanation: Pull requests facilitate collaborative review before merging code.
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Question 46. Which of the following is a common metric used to evaluate CI pipeline efficiency? A) Number of lines of code per commit B) Mean Time To Recovery (MTTR) C) Lead time from commit to production deployment D) Number of Docker images stored Answer: C Explanation: Lead time measures how quickly code moves through the pipeline to production. Question 47. In container orchestration, a “DaemonSet” ensures that: A) All Pods run on a single node B) A copy of a specific Pod runs on every node in the cluster C) Pods are scheduled only on worker nodes with GPU D) Pods are automatically scaled based on CPU usage Answer: B Explanation: DaemonSets are used for node-level services like log collectors or monitoring agents. Question 48. Which of the following statements about “immutable tags” for Docker images is true? A) They can be overwritten with newer builds without any impact B) They guarantee that the image content never changes, enabling reliable rollbacks C) They are automatically generated by Docker Hub for every push D) They are only used for development environments Answer: B
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D) AWS CloudFormation Answer: B Explanation: AWS CodePipeline orchestrates CI/CD using CodeCommit, CodeBuild, and CodeDeploy. Question 52. Which of the following is an example of “infrastructure drift detection” in a cloud environment? A) Running terraform plan on a live environment and reviewing differences B) Manually checking the AWS console for resource changes C) Restarting all EC2 instances weekly D) Deleting unused security groups Answer: A Explanation: terraform plan compares the real state with the IaC definition, revealing drift. Question 53. The primary benefit of using “canary analysis” tools like Spinnaker is to: A) Automatically scale databases B) Perform statistical analysis on metrics from a small subset of traffic to decide if a release is safe to promote C) Encrypt all network traffic D) Replace the need for unit tests Answer: B Explanation: Canary analysis evaluates health signals before full rollout, reducing risk. Question 54. Which of the following is NOT a typical function of a “CI server”? A) Pulling source code from version control
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B) Running automated tests C) Deploying infrastructure resources directly to production without approval D) Publishing build artifacts Answer: C Explanation: CI servers automate building and testing; deployment to production usually requires gating and approvals. Question 55. In the context of logging, the “ELK” stack stands for: A) Elastic, Logstash, Kafka B) Elasticsearch, Logstash, Kibana C) Elastic, Loki, Kube D) Event, Log, Kernel Answer: B Explanation: ELK comprises Elasticsearch for storage/search, Logstash for ingestion, and Kibana for visualization. Question 56. Which of the following statements about “idempotent” operations in IaC is correct? A) They produce different results each time they run B) Running the operation multiple times yields the same end state without side effects C) They can only be used with imperative tools D) They require manual verification after each run Answer: B Explanation: Idempotent actions ensure repeated executions converge to the same desired state.
