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Course 1- Quiz 2- Surgical Specialties study guide
- Which of the following allows for the most stable and rigid fixation of a fracture? Select one: a. Locked plating system b. Dynamic compression plating c. Semi-tubular plates d. Placement of a lag screw across the fracture: a. Locked plating system
- During the cementing of components during total joint replacement, a new CRNA who has never worked in orthopedics before begins to panic. A side effect that possibly occurred with this patient as a result of the cement is: Select one: a. Hypotension b. Hypertension c. Hyperthermia d. Increase airway resistance: a. Hypotension
- Of the following, which is not included in the 5 P's of compartment syn- drome?
2 / 20 Select one: a. Pain b. Pallor c. Pulses d. Paresis: c. Pulses
- When preoperatively assessing a patient for cardiac surgery, the RNFA should
consider all of the following except: a. Bleeding times b. Glucose c. Immunosuppressant use d. RBC count: d. RBC count
- Of the nerves that are associated with the thyroid gland, which one can be
affected by compression resulting from an enlarged left atrium? Select one: Left recurrent laryngeal nerve b. Right recurrent laryngeal nerve c. Superior laryngeal nerve
4 / 20 c. Brachial plexus d. Supraclavicular nerve: b. Long thoracic nerve
- Nipple discharge is more commonly associated with benign breast lesions
than with cancer; however, discharge is usually significant only if it is spontaneous, persistent, and: a. chronic b. unilateral c. bloody d. milky: c. bloody
- Which of the following is the surgical goal for breast conserving surgery?
Removal of cancerous mass with a margin of normal tissue b. Removal of cancerous mass only and fair cosmetic results c. Removal of cancerous mass with extra posterior margins of normal tissue d. Removal of cancerous mass with minimal lateral margins of normal tissue: a. Removal of cancerous mass with a margin of normal tissue
- Aneurysms may be caused by atherosclerosis, trauma, infection, or cystic
medial degeneration. What presenting conditions will indicate that surgical
5 / 20 intervention is necessary? a. Compromised circulation or danger of rupture b. Circumferential involvement c. Spindle-shaped morphology d. Combined saccular and fusiform morphology without dissection: a. Compromised circulation or danger of rupture
- The internal mammary arteries are frequently used as grafts during coronary bypass surgery. Where are they located? a. They branch from the anterior interventricular branch of the right coronary artery. b. They branch from the subclavian arteries c. They diverge from the left coronary artery d. They diverge from the innominate artery: b. They branch from the subclavian arteries
- Identify the venous structure that prevents blood backflow. a. Semilunar intimal folds b. Coarctation segments c. Pressure receptors
7 / 20 b. a protrusion of an immature thyroglossal duct cyst overgrowth. c. a thin upward protrusion of thyroid tissue from the isthmus. d. a vestige of an embryonic thyroid cyst.: c. a thin upward protrusion of thyroid tissue from the isthmus.
- What term is used to describe inflammation of the gallbladder? a. Cholelithiasis b. Cholecystitis c. Choledocholithiasis d. Cholecystolithiasis: a. Cholelithiasis
- The most common complication of Meckel's diverticulum is: a. GI bleeding b. Intussusception c. Obstruction d. Volvulus: a. GI bleeding
- What muscles are separated longitudinally by the linear alba?
8 / 20 a. Transversus b. External obliques c. Rectus abdominis Pyramidalis: c. Rectus abdominis
- The taeniae coli consist of how many longitudinal bands of muscle along the
length of the colon? a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 4: b. 3
- During a laparoscopic colectomy, the scrub person carefully placed the
endoscopic electrosurgery instruments on the Mayo stand after inspecting the integrity of the insulation along the shaft. This practice is designed prevent a unique MIS problem. Choose the correct option from the following. a. Indirect coupling b. Direct coupling c. Alarm malfunction
10 / 20 these organs that is true. a. All three are solid organs and very vascular. b. All three are metabolic organs. c. All three organs have terminal attachments to the duodenum. d. All three organs impact blood clotting: a. All three are solid organs and very vascular.
- Steven Morganstein, a 51-year-old male with hepatobiliary disease, is scheduled
for surgery. During the preoperative assessment, you question and examine the patient for signs and symptoms of jaundice, petechiae, and lethargy as well as: a. review his chart for bleeding and coagulation times and the platelet count. b. ask Steven his blood type and when he last donated blood. c. palpate Steven's abdomen for left upper quadrant tenderness and liver margins. d. review the findings of his endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatoscopy (ERCP).: a. review his chart for bleeding and coagulation times and the platelet count.
- Describe the internal inguinal ring.
a. A natural opening in the transversalis fascia b. Opening from the inguinal canal to the scrotum
11 / 20 c. Opening to the inguinal canal formed by iliopectineal ligament d. Opening to the inguinal canal formed by the internal oblique aponeurosis: a. A natural opening in the transversalis fascia
- The colon wall has five distinct layers that include which of the following?
a. Mucosa b. Intima c. Haustra d. Taeniae coli: a. Mucosa
- The absence of distinct taeniae serves as a visual landmark for what
abdominal structure? Upper margin of the rectum b. The posterior rectum c. The Splenic flexure d. The Hepatic flexure: a. Upper margin of the rectum
- Femoral hernias occur more frequently in which group of individuals?
13 / 20 c. Greater sciatic foramen d. Anorectal junction: b. Superior hypogastric plexus
- Which structure supports the uterus and contains the uterine artery and
vein? a. Cardinal ligaments b. Posterior uterine ligaments c. Uterosacral ligaments Suspensory ligaments: a. Cardinal ligaments
- Which of the following layers of the uterus contains the lymphatics?
Select one: a. Endometrium b. Myometrium c. Serous layer d. Isthmus: b. Myometrium
- There are 8 bones that form the cranial cavity. Four of the bones are paired and
four are singular. Choose the correct list of singular bones from the following. a. Frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, occipital
14 / 20 b. Frontal, temporal, ethmoid, occipital c. Parietal, occipital, sphenoid, frontal d. Parietal, temporal, ethmoid, sphenoid: a. Frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, occipital
- Identify the dura fold that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres. a. Falx cerebri b. Tentorium cerebelli c. Falx cerebelli d. Tentorium cerebri: a. Falx cerebri
- Which of the following sulci is of particular anatomic importance during surgery? a. Medial sulcus b. Superior sulcus c. Lateral sulcus d. Frontal sulcus: c. Lateral sulcus
- A tear to the middle meningeal artery, often caused by a blow to the head, results in the formation of a hematoma.
16 / 20 d. Wrist joint: c. Intervertebral joints
- An important aspect to bone healing that is preserved through in-
Tra medullary reaming is which of the following? a. Immediate ambulation b. Maintenance of fracture hematoma c. Maintenance of osteoclast formation d. Maintenance of vascular flow: b. Maintenance of fracture hematoma
- A herniated disc most commonly occurs in which section of the vertebral
column? a. Cervical b. Thoracic c. Lumbar d. Sacral: c. Lumbar
- Of the following, which is not a symptom of compartment syndrome?
Paresthesia
17 / 20 b. Moderate pain c. Severe pain d. Decrease in motor movement: b. Moderate pain
- Changes to the elderly person's skeleton can present challenges to the intraoperative team. In terms of additional attention and care, what intervention can the intraoperative team provide? a. Consider the patient's ROM during the preoperative interview. b. Document the patient's pain rating before anesthesia induction and positioning. c. Consider the patient's posture and flexibility during the preoperative inter- view. d. Position the patient using appropriate padding and joint protection devices.- : d. Position the patient using appropriate padding and joint protection devices.
- Identify the part of the femur that is most susceptible to fracture in conjunction with osteoporosis. a. mid-shaft. b. medial condyle. c. along the subtrochanteric line. d. femoral neck: d. femoral neck
19 / 20 assessment of family history to identify risk for developing malignant hyperthermia (MH)
- Once cervical spine precautions are implemented and a cervical collar is applied, what event needs to take place before the team removes the cervical collar and continues care? a. A halo traction apparatus is applied. b. A cervical radiograph is obtained to rule out injury to the neck. c. A CT scan with contrast of the upper body is obtained to rule out vascular involvement. d. A myelogram of the cervical spinal canal is obtained to rule out injury to the spinal cord.: b. A cervical radiograph is obtained to rule out injury to the neck.
- A 36 year old trauma patient is rushed to the OR with multiple penetrating gunshot and knife wounds to the abdomen. He is bleeding profusely. What ap- propriate action is critical in the rapid preparation of this patient for surgery? a. Set up the autotransfusion system. b. Prep the patient from the suprasternal notch to the mid-thigh. c. Place the aortic cross-clamp on the Mayo stand. d. Open a silo-bag closure system on the sterile field.: b. Prep the patient from the
20 / 20 suprasternal notch to the mid-thigh.
- The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is commonly used to assess patients with brain
injury using three indicators of cerebral function: eye opening, verbal communication, and motor response to verbal and noxious stimuli. Within the scoring range for the GCS, the best possible score is and the worst possible score is. a. 15; 3 b. 12; 0 c. 3; 15 d. 0; 12: a. 15; 3
- Select the injury or condition that reflect probable child abuse or neglect.
a. Abrasions of both knees b. Multiple bug bites c. Forearm fracture from falling off swing d. Severe diaper rash with the presence of ammonia burns.: d. Severe diaper rash with the presence of ammonia burns.
