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Endeavor Indoc Study Guide.
Class A Weather mins - correct answer N/A Class B weather mins - correct answer 3SM clear of clouds Class C weather mins - correct answer 3 statute miles, 1k above, 500 below, 2,000 horizontal Class D weather mins - correct answer 3 statute miles, 1k above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal Class E weather mins below 10,000 MSL - correct answer 3 statute miles, 1k above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal Class E weather mins above 10,000 MSL - correct answer 5 statute miles, 1k above, 1k below, 1 SM horizontal Class G 1,200 feet or less above the surface (regardless of MSL), during the day - correct answer 1 statute mile, clear of clouds Class G, 1,200 feet or less above the surface (regardless of MSL), at night - correct answer 3 statute miles, 1k above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal Class G More than 1,200 feet above surface but less than 10k MSL during the day - correct answer 1 statute mile, 1k above, 500 below, 2k horizontal Class G More than 1,200 feet above surface but less than 10k MSL at night - correct answer 3 statute miles, 1k above, 500 below, 2k horizontal Class G More than 1,200 feet above the surface and at or above 10k MSL, day or night - correct answer 5 statute miles, 1k above, 1k below, 1SM horizontal
What conditions allow you to continue past the final approach fix? (3 things) (8-124) - correct answer Cleared for the approach Latest reported weather, including controlling RVR report (if operational and applicable) is at or above minimums for operation being conducted. *If PF has begun final approach segment and controlling vis drops below minimums, the approach may be continued to DA(H) or MDA. Minimum weather info required in flight release package (7-24) (5 general pieces of info) - correct answer Current routine weather report Aerodrome forecast (TAF) NOTAMS FICONs (Field Conditions) and Company NOTAMs when available/applicable Sigmets and Airmets V1 - correct answer Takeoff action speed. Action must take place by this speed to abort T/O within accelerate-stop distance. VR - correct answer Rotation speed. Speed at which takeoff begins, when aircraft rotates and leaves the ground. Gives at least 5% margin to Vmca. Must fall between V1 and V V2 - correct answer Takeoff safety speed. Safe speed for climbout after engine failure. Must reach and maintain no later than 35' AGL when single engine. VFTO - correct answer Final Takeoff speed. How do you make comments regarding the errors, ommissions, conflicts with other documents, or suggestions for improvement to the FOM (1-3 and 1-9) - correct answer Through the Manual Change process and the on-line Manual Change Request form What is the FAR 117 rest period before beginning reserve or flight duty period (5-5) - correct answer 10 hours. The 10 hour rest period must provide the pilot with a minimum of 8 uninterrupted hours of sleep opportunity.
Exemption 17347 (7-32). Each certificate holder must list ____ additional alternate airport in the dispatch release whenever the METAR, TAF, or any combination thereof for the destination or first alternate airport indicate, by use of ______ words in the remarks of such METAR or one or more time increments of the TAF, that the forecast weather conditions for the destination or first alternate could be less than authorized minimums for those airports. - correct answer one; conditional Exemption 17347 (7-33). To release a flight under exemption 17347, you must have ___ alternates, the destination's ______ visibility forecast must be at least equal to landing minimums, and conditional forecast must not be less than _____ of that required for the approach - correct answer 2; main body ; 1/ Exemption 17347 (7-33). The destination runway expected to be used at ETA must be ____ (i.e. crosswind and tailwind components, including gusts, do not exceed aircraft limitations). The first alternate main body forecast must meet alternate criteria as specified in the Company Op Specs. The "_______" forecast must not be less than half of the required alternate minimum ceiling and visibility. The second alternate main body and conditional forecast must meet alternate criteria. - correct answer suitable; conditional Can you base dispatch on RNAV approaches at both the destination and alternate airports? - correct answer No, it is limited to destination airport or alternate(s) Stabilized approaches (8-128). No lower than 1000 feet AFE, what must exist for a stable approach? - correct answer Be fully configured for landing (gear and landing flaps extended) Maintain a stable descent rate not to exceed 1000 fpm. Be aligned with the intended landing runway. Stabilized approaches (8-128-129). No lower than 500 feet AFE and crossing the threshold, the aircraft must be on ____ airspeed, with the engines stabilized at ____. Crossing the runway threshold, the aircraft must be positioned to ____ in the ____. - correct answer target airspeed, the thrust setting required to maintain the desired airspeed and rate of descent. make a normal landing TDZ.
Uncontrolled terminal areas (8-93). What are the conditions that allow Endeavor to operate at airports in Class G airspace or without an operating control tower - correct answer 1. The airport is served by an authorized Instrument approach
- The airport has an approved source of weather. (Only weather from approved sources is disseminated in METAR system)
- A CTAF frequency, unicom, or advisory frequency is available for obtaining traffic advisories or monitoring local traffic
- The company operations frequency is available to provide current FICON information
- The facilities and services necessary to safely conduct IFR operations are available and operational at the time of the particular operation. What is the traffic pattern altitude for turbojet aircraft (8-94) and what direction must turns be made unless otherwise indicated - correct answer 1500 ft AGL, left hand turns When departing an uncontrolled airport (8-94), continue _____ or exit with a _____ beyond the departure end of the runway, after reaching _____ - correct answer straight out; 45 degree turn; pattern altitude Are straight in approaches authorized at uncontrolled airports? If so, what are the conditions? (8-94) - correct answer Yes Traffic information and/or advisories available by means of a ground radio or CTAF Final must be established 5 miles out, provided no other aircraft in the pattern. If other aircraft in the pattern, aircraft approaching straight in will give way and join the pattern to establish a landing sequence. All inbound traffic shall monitor and communicate as appropriate on ____ from ____ miles out to landing. Departing aircraft shall monitor/communicate on the appropriate frequency from startup, during taxi and until ____ miles out (8-95). - correct answer CTAF frequency; 10; 10 Can you erase an entry in the MM01 (10-7)? What are the procedures for entries made in error - correct answer No. Void by drawing a single line through the entry and writing or printing next to the voided entry "EIE", along with initials and employee #. Can you use EIE to clear a discrepancy? (10-7) - correct answer No
What are the events that cause a required report to dispatch? Who else gets notified and what report must the Captain fill out?(12-6) - correct answer Incidents, situations, or events that interrupt or alter normal flight operations. The Captain will inform the dispatcher as soon as practicable. Dispatcher will inform Duty Manager, who will notify appropriate company officials. Captain will submit a Flight safety report within 24 hours How soon must you deliver your up to date medical certificate to the regional chief pilot's office? (4-12) - correct answer On or before the start of business on the 26th of the expiration month. Can you discard the back page of your medical certificate? (4-11) - correct answer No, you must have both front and back pages connected to be valid. If a runway does not have RVR reporting equipment, what controls its visibility? (8-87) - correct answer Reported visibility at the field Where are takeoff minimums specified? (8-87) - correct answer Jeppesen 10-9 airport chart What are the standard Company takeoff minimums? (8-88) - correct answer 1 mile or RVR 5000, unless a higher minimum is specified for a particular airport When standard takeoff minimums or greater are used, which RVR report is controlling? (8-88) - correct answer TDZ RVR, regardless of any mid or rollout RVR readings. If TDZ RVR is unavailable and standard takeoff mins or greater are used, what can be substituted? (8-88)
- correct answer Prevailing visibility When using lower than standard takeoff minimums and RVR at or above 1600, what is the order of precedence for controlling information? (8-88) - correct answer TDZ RVR is controlling Mid RVR may be substituted for unavailable TDZ
When using lower than standard takeoff minimums and RVR is below 1600, what is the order of precedence for controlling information? (8-88) - correct answer A minimum of two operative RVR reporting systems are required. All available RVR reports are controlling* Exception - extremely long runway that has a fourth far-end RVR; it is not controlling and is not to be used as one of the two required operative RVR systems When takeoff RVR is 1600 or RVV 1/4 statue mile, what visual aids must be available? (8-89) - correct answer One of the following: Operative HIRL Operative Centerline Lights (CL) Servicable runway centerline markings (RCLM) If none of the above, may still use 1600 or 1/4 SM provided other runway markings or lighting provide adequate visual reference to continuously identify the takeoff surface and maintain direction control during takeoff run. When RVR is TDZ 1200, mid 1200 or rollout 1000, what other visual aids must be available? (8-89) - correct answer Daylight: Servicable RCLM or HIRL or operative CL lights. Night: HIRL or operative CL lights. When RVR is TDZ 1000, mid is 1000 and rollout 1000, one of the following visual aid combinations must be available: (8-90) - correct answer Operative CL, or HIRL and serviceable RCLM When TDZ RVR is 600, mid 600 and rollout 600, what other visual aids must be available? (8-90) (3 of them, all must be available) - correct answer All RVR equipment Operative CL lights HIRL. At Canadian airports with only two RVR, takeoff mins may be authorized if (8-90) - correct answer TDZ operable and at least 600 RVR
Before a flght departs originating station Before a flight departs station where equipment change takes place At a station which is the terminating point of the current release Before departing an intermediate station listed on original release after aircraft has remained on ground for more than one hour past in time Before departing after a flight makes an unscheduled landing Any regular, provisional or refueling airport may be designated as destination Enroute, destination or alternate may be changed to another airport authorized for the aircraft. Can service or emotional support animals be placed in an exit row? (9-8) - correct answer No What type of seat is that from which passengers may proceed directly to an exit without entering an aisle, and each seat in a row of seats through which passengers would have to pass to gain access to an exit? - correct answer Exit seat Who is NOT allowed to use an exit seat? (9-33) - correct answer Passenger who lack mobility, strength, or dexterity in both arms and hands and both legs to quickly reach exits and open them Passengers who require use of a POC Passengers who cannot read or understand Information cards, or understand oral instructions Insufficient visual capability or aural capacity that prevents them from understanding crewmember instructions Passengers who have responsibility such as caring for a small child that might prevent from performing one of the functions Passengers who suffer from condition that might cause bodily harm while operating an exit Passengers requiring use of seatbelt extension Passengers less than 15 Passengers unwilling to operate and exit or perform associated required functions
Name some things that can affect weather minimums for dispatching a flight (7-27) - correct answer Any MEL restrictions which affect approach or landing status of aircraft NOTAMS which affect approach status of runways Company or FAA imposed restrictions Flight Crew's authorized minimums What is a Cat I approach (7-40) - correct answer Any approach with an MDA/DA of not less than 200 feet HAT/HAA and a RVR less than 1800 When can you descend below MDA or DH (8-120) - correct answer Aircraft continuously in a position from which a descent to landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers, and that descent rate allows touchdown to occur within the TDZ Flight vis not less than visibility for the approach procedure One of the visual references for intended runway listed on 8-120 is distinctly visible and identifiable If the Second in command has fewer than ____ hours as SIC, and unless the PIC is an appropriately qualified check pilot, when must PIC make all takeoffs and landings? (5-26) - correct answer 100; Special airports on Jeppesen 10- Any of the following conditions: Visibility at or below 3/4SM RVR below 4,000 feet Runway has water, snow, slush or similiar conditions that adversely affect airplane performance Braking action less than "good" Crosswind in excess of 15 knots for runway in use WIndshear in airport vicinity Winds with gust factor greater than 10 knots LAHSO
Congested areas, obstructions, and physical layout of each airport in the terminal area in which they operate. How often do Captains receive line checks? FOs? (5-21) - correct answer Captain - at least 1 random, no-notice line check within an 18 month period FO - Evaluated during the Captain's line check Report time will be ___ before scheduled departure time. Crewmembers use ___ or ___ to check in. If any flight crewmembers has not checked in within ___ minutes after scheduled report time, remaining crewmember must contact crew scheduling supervisor immediately. - correct answer 45 minutes; CrewVoice or CrewTrac; 5 Overnight stations??? - correct answer Release time is ____ minutes after block in at the gate. What are some exceptions? (5-11 ) - correct answer 15; Exceptions: if you have to taxi your aircraft to a maintenance facility (Contact crew scheduling at arrival of facility) to insure correct release time calculated If being released early, contact crew scheduling. If you leave between segments, must receive approval from crew scheduling and advise other crew prior to leaving, and report back in when returning If on reserve, call crew scheduling or log on to CrewWeb and self notifying for any schedule modifications, no more than 30 minutes after completion of last scheduled flight assignment. What is Exemption 17203 (5-16) - correct answer Allows a flight to be dispatched with a high mins Captain to CAT I mins and for approaches to be flown to CAT I mins. To use exemption 17203 (5-17), the CA must have less than _____ PIC and are a _____ mins CA. The PIC and SIC must be trained and qualified for ______, and systems fully functional for it. They must fly a ____ approach to _____ and use ____ procedures. The approach (even though it may be a CAT II
approach) will never be flown below ____ This exemption cannot be used if crosswind component exceeds ______ COMBINED with braking action less than ______. - correct answer CA less than 100 hours as PIC and are High Mins CA CAT II Aircraft and systems must be fully functional for CAT II Coupled approach DH or Missed Approach appropriate CAT II instrument procedures (not necessarily at CAT II approach) CAT I mins Cannot be used if crosswind component exceeds 15 knots COMBINED with braking action less than "good" What does the Captain do to certify that the flight can be made safely as planned and that they have reviewed the dispatch release and flight plan for accuracy (7-12) - correct answer Sign the release Name some requirements for reissue or revalidate a release (complete list on 7-15) - correct answer Before a flight departs an originating station after a delay of more than two hours past the originally scheduled departure time (out time) Before a flight departs an intermediate station after a delay of more than one hour past arrival time (in time) Route changes in excess of FOM guidance Takeoff or destination alternate additions or deletions. How are release amendments communicated and how does the captain acknowledge them? (7-16) - correct answer communicated via ACARS, company radio, or ARINC. Captain acknowledges on ARINC or radio, he shall repeat the entire message (excluding weather and NOTAMs), including dispatcher's initials and time of release. All amendments will be recorded by the captain on original release
What must you add to an alternate when using the "1 navaid" rule (7-38) - correct answer 400 ft to MDA and 1SM or 1600m to landing minimums What must you add to an alternate when using the "2 NAVAIDs" rule (7-28) - correct answer 200ft to higher DA or MDA of the 2 approaches used and add 1/2 SM to higher authorized landing minimum of the two approaches used. A flight must be planned with enough fuel to fly to airport it was dispatched, then to fly and land at the most ____ alternate airport for the airport to which dispatched, thereafter to fly for ___ minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption (7-46) - correct answer distant; 45 What is taxi fuel? (7-46) Taxi fuel includes _____ engines running (including ___) and ____ time anticipated for that flight - correct answer Fuel necessary to position aircraft for takeoff. All; APU; taxi What is burn/enroute fuel? (7-46) - correct answer Fuel for takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach and landing. destination alternate fuel provides an allowance for what six items? (7-47) - correct answer Allowance for missed approach, enroute climb, Aircraft specific fuel burn, descent, approach and landing. What is reserve fuel? (7-48) What are the min and max reserve fuels for the 700/900? - correct answer Fuel planned for aircraft to continue flight for 45 minutes after arriving over alternate airport, or destination airport if release does not specify an alternate. Minimum for 700/900 is 2500 lbs and max is 2800 lbs What is tanker fuel (7-50) - correct answer Fuel normally carried for economic savings. When should you use reserve fuel? (7-53) - correct answer Only used to complete the flight after all other alternative actions have been taken What is decision fuel and when should you use it (7-53) - correct answer Amount of fuel remaining at which Captain and dispatcher expect to execute operational decisions regarding alternate airports, the destination or diversions. Execute a new plan of action NLT when the estimated Fuel remaining at the airport of intended landing is equal to reserve fuel plus alternate fuel.
When does a minimum fuel condition exist? (7-55) - correct answer Anticipated FRMNG at airport of intended landing, is less than 30 minutes of flight time until exhaustion (i.e., 15 minutes of 45 minute reserve are no longer available). All available options to reduce the fuel required to complete the flight have been used, and no further delay can be accepted. What is emergency fuel? (7-56) If you declare emergency fuel, how long do you have to complete a safety report? - correct answer When anticipated FRMNG at the airport of intended landing, based on normal route expected for flight, is less than 20 minutes of flight time until exhaustion. Declare an emergency, stress fuel remaining in minutes, request priority handling and proceed directly to airport. Complete a safety report within 24 hours of event. (CRJ 700/900) Whenever a holdover time has been exceeded, a pre-takeoff contamination check can only be completed within _____ minutes of takeoff. The pretakeoff check must be completed from the ______. The ____ will complete this inspection - correct answer 5; cabin emergency exit vantage point (row 12); first officer. The flight crew performs the ______ check when they expect to takeoff within the established holdover time. This check is to be accomplished ____ to takeoff. The flight crew will conduct a visual check from ____ for an accurate indication of the condition of the representative surfaces. - correct answer Pre- takeoff check; just prior; the flight deck What communications should be done between captain and deice coordinator? (7-69) - correct answer Ship number Special requests (leading edge only, gear, etc) Brakes are set and aircraft is configured for deicing Once completed following communicated to Captain: Ship number, Type of fluid, Brand, Time final application started in minutes ago, freeze point, verification that post deice inspections complete, clearance to start engines, instructions and/or clearance to depart deice location
How many animals are accepted in the cabin that are trained to assist disabled individuals? (9-64)? - correct answer Unlimited Are therapy animals considered service animals (9-64)? - correct answer No Can service animals occupy an exit seat, or obstruct an aise or other area which must remain clear? (9-
- correct answer No and No How big can service animals be to sit in the lap of a person? (9-66) - correct answer No larger than a lap held child Prior to flight, both pilots must review the ___ to the last ___ and verify that no open discrepancies exist. If a discrepancy was deferred, verify that the discrepancy was properly deferred per the ___ and that time remaining on the deferral meets of exceeds duration of planned flight. (10-2) - correct answer MM01; Airworthiness Release; MEL When can you remove electrical power with passengers on board (10-30) - correct answer only when crew or maintenance can resolve a problem with MOMENTARY shutdown of power (30 seconds-ish) Before blocking out, PIC notifies ___ of mechanical issues, who notifies ___. The ___ then determines to fix, defer or ferry (10-31) - correct answer Dispatcher, Sector Supervisor and MOC. MOC After ramp departure and prior to takeoff, PIC notifies ___ of mechanical issues, who notifies ___. The _____ then decide to _____ - correct answer Dispatcher, Sector Supervisor and MOC. PIC/Dispatcher/MOC, defer or return to gate For an irregularity requiring the QRH, the PIC does what? (10-32) If it does not require QRH what happens? - correct answer Completes checklists and notifies dispatch, determine if a diversion or air return necessary; PIC sends ACARS message to Dispatcher and MOC When an engine fails, PIC lands airplane at _____, at point in time, in which a safe landing can be made (11-15). What report must the PIC then send? - correct answer Nearest suitable airport. Flight safety report, within 24 hours after completion of the flight.
Can dispatchers declare an emergency? (11-16) - correct answer Yes What is a reportable event? (12-6) Who gets informed and what reports are filed? - correct answer Incidents, situations or events that interrupt or alter normal flight operations. Captain will inform dispatcher as soon as practicable. Within 24 hours, Captain submits a Flight Safety report. What is the purpose of ASAP? (12-4) How soon must reports be submitted to be included? - correct answer Identify safety events and implement corrective measures that manage risks. Improves flight safety through submitter self-reporting, cooperative follow-up, and appropriate corrective action. Must be submitted no later than 24 hours of the event, or of the submitter becoming aware of non- compliance. What are some examples of events that you can use to file ASAP report? (12-4 and 5) (3 of them) - correct answer General flight safety concerns Inadvertent violation or potential violation of FAA regulations Inadvertent deviation or potential deviation from SOP and/or Company policies All Endeavor Air Inc Operations are conducted using ___ (7-37) - correct answer Domestic rules Can Endeavor conduct LAHSO Ops (8-131)? If so what is the minimum runway length by group? - correct answer Yes. 200/700 - 6000 feet. 900 - 7000 feet In order to conduct LAHSO operations, the aircraft must be configured for a ____. LAHSO are not authorized to a runway that does not provide _____ (8-131 to 132). The minimum ceiling required is ____ and visibility ____ miles, unless a PAPI or VASI exist, at which point the ceiling and vis required is ____. The runway must be considered ___, and tailwind less than _____ knots. - correct answer normal landing visual or electronic guidance Min ceiling 1500 feet and min vis 5 miles (if PAPI or VASI, then 1000 and 3) dry 3 knots
