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EPPP Questions EPPP Questions EPPP Questions
Typology: Exams
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Hippocampus is to explicit memory as __________ is to implicit memory: a) septum b) thalamus c) medulla d) cerebellum - Cerebellum The research suggests that sex therapy has been most successful for the treatment of: a) impotence b) premature ejaculation c) orgasmic anhedonia d) hypoactive sexual desire - premature ejaculation An amputee experiences a sensation on his missing limb whenever he is touched on his lower lip. This is: a) phantom limb. b) super-added phantom. c) referred phantom sensation. d) adventitious synesthesia. - referred phantom sesation Patients who have recently starting taking naltrexone (Revia) as a treatment for alcohol dependence ar emost likely to experience which of the following drug side effects? a) dizziness, ataxia, visual disturbances, nausea, and rash b) blurred vision, sexual dysfunction, weight gain, edema, and tremor c) shortness of breath, increased dreaming, nausea, diarrhea, and bradycardia d) abdominal cramping, nausea, insomnia, nervousness, and headache - d) abdominal cramping, nausea, insomnia, nervousness and headache
Soon after staring to take an antidepressant, a young woman develops several troubling symptoms including dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation and blurred vision. Which of the following would be most useful in alleviating these side effects? a) caffeine b) antihistamine c) dopamine agonist d) cholinergic agonist - cholinergic agonist For a DSM diagnosis of acute stress disorder, the indiviudal must deveop symptoms withing 4 weeks of exposure to a trauma and symptoms myst persist for a min of _________ and a max of
a) 2 days; 4 weeks b) 4 days; 2 weeks c) 2 days; 6 weeks d) 4 days; 8 weeks - 2 days; 4 weeks Underlying the technique known as stress inoculatoin is the assumption that : a) exposure to stressful situations extinguishes the stress reaction to habituation b) exposure to stressful situations leads to catharsis which results in reduced reactivity c) successful coping with stress strengthens the ability to cope with stress in the future d) expecting exposure to stressful stimuli reduces their impact - successful coping with stress strengthens the ability to cope with stress in the future Helm's white racial identity model distinguishes btwn 6 statuses, with each status being associated with a differen info processing strategy. For exampl, the "flexibility and complexity" strategy is characteristic of the _______ status a) internalisation b) integrative awareness c) reintegration d) autonomy -
A licensed psychologist with epertise in the areas of mental retardation and learning disabilities is hired by a school district to assist a teacher who is having difficulty in working effectively with newly mainstreamed students in his class. The psychologist will work with the teacher an dhave no direct contact with the students. This is a type of: a) client-centered case consultation b) consultee-centrered case consultation c) program-centered case consultation d) consultee-cenetered admin consultation - consultee-centered case consult Damage to the prefrontal cortex is most likely to cause: a) impaired memory and attention b) psychic blindness c) alterations in the sleep/wake cycle d) impaired motor coordination - impaired memory and attention The analysis of cost savings in medical care resulting form the provision of effective mental health services is referred to as a) cost offset analysis b) cost effectiveness analysis c) cost utility analysis d) cost benefit analysis - cost offset analysis The analysis that compaires the relative costs and outcomes of 2 or more interventions is referred to as a) cost offset analysis b) cost effectiveness analysis c) cost utility analysis d) cost benefit analysis - cost effectiveness analysis
The ring and little fingers of the hand represent one dermatome and are innervated by which of the following a) second cervical nerve b) either cervical nerve c) second thoracic nervice d) tenth thoracic nerve - either cervical nerve Which is NOT true about the effects of crowding a) men are more negatively affected than women by corwding b) increasing agge is assoc with an increasing negative impact of crowding c) people are more willing to discuss intimate details in a crowded situation d) crowded conditions are asoc with a higher risk for health probs - people are more willing to discuss intimate details in a crowded situation Severe deficits in semantic memory are most likely due to damage in the a) frontal lobes b) parietal lobes c) temporal lobes d) occipital lobes - temporal lobes In your 1st therapy session with a new client it's clear that she's exp a crisis that requires immediate attention. With regard to obtaining informed consent, the best strategy is to: a) explain to the client that you are ethically obligated to obtain an informed consent before proceeding but, if necessary, obtain a verbal (rather than signed written) consent. b) allow the client to vent her feelings before beginning the informed consent process. c) determine if the client is capable of giving a truly informed consent before attempting to do so. d) attempt to obtain the client's assent before proceeding and postpone obtaining an informed consent until the crisis has been addressed. - d) attempt to obtain the client's assent before proceeding and postpone obtaining an informed consent until the crisis has been addressed.
Dr Dilemma is contacted by an insurance company which wants info about a previous client of hers. The client's fees were paid by the insurance company and they now want info for part of it's regular peer review process. The best course of action would be to: a) provide the insurance company with the information it requests b) provide the insurance company with the information it requests only after ensuring that the company will take steps to protect the client's confidentiality c) provide the insurance company with the information it requests in a way that allows the client's identity to be concealed d) refuse to release any information to the company unless she feels it is in the client's best interests
stimulus control-response is brough under stimulus control when person learns to respond in situations in which reinf is likely but not in situations in which no reinf is likely when using coverts sensitisation, the US is a- a) noxious stimulus presented in vivo b) noxious stiumuls presented in imagination c) innocuous stimulus presented in vivo d) innocuous stimulus presented in imagination - noxious stimulus presented in imagination Aspect of memory capable of storing a verylarge amount of info for a very brief period of time is_____ a) short term memory b) sensory c) primary d) secondary - sensory The Zeigarnik effect occurs: a) under stressful conditions b) under nonstressful conditions c) in familiary circumstances d) in unfamiliar circumstances - under nonstressful conditions A person with damage to which area of the frontal lobe is most likely to engage in disinhibited, impulsive behavs an dexhibit emotional lability, distractibility and poor judgment and insight? a) medial frontal area b) anterior cingulate area c) dorsolateral prefronal area d) orbitofrontal area - orbitofrontal area
A DSM diagnosis of Opiod withdrawal requires the dvpt of 3 characteristic symptoms following cessation -symptoms include all EXCEPT: a) dysphoric mood b) yawning c) muslce aches d) hallucinations - hallucinations Which of the following is not true about LD? a) children with LD usually cont to exp problems into adolescence and adulthood b) children with LD have avg to above avg intelligence c) studies have ruled out genetic components in etiology of these disorders d) these disorders are about 2-4x more common in males than females - studies have NOT ruled out genetic components in etiology of these disorders when using hte DSM, _______ is used ot record physical or biol factors a) Axis II b) Axis III c) Axis IV d) Axis V - Axis III Howard's phase model proposes that a client's progress in therapy occurs in 3 predictable phases: a) unfreezing, changing and refreezing b) remoralization, remediation and rehab c) engagement, exploration and evaluation d) contemplation, action, and termination - b) remoralization, remediation and rehab A 9 year old with panic disorder: a) has been misdiag b/c panic disorder does not occur in preadolescent kids
b) is most likely to manifest disorder as crying, freezing and clinging to parents c) most likely to manifest disorder as shortness of breath, chest pain, and heart palpitations d) is most likely to manifest disorder as shortness of breath, chest pain, tachycardia, and school refusal - d) is most likely to manifest disorder as shortness of breath, chest pain, tachycardia, and school refusal This highest lifetime risk for MDD is among individuals aged: a) 18- b) 30- c) 45- d) 65+ - 45- Exceptions to the psychotherapist-patient privilege: a) apply only when a patient is believed to be a danger to him/herself or others. b) apply only when the exception has been agreed to by the patient or his/her legal representative. c) apply to legal settings and vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction. d) apply to legal and non-legal settings and vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction. - apply to legal settings and vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction. Which of the following has the strongest evidence of success for reducing teen pregnancy rates? a) abstinence only programs b) service learning programs c) school condom distribution d) community wide programs - service learning programs A latino client suffering from depression is most likely to complain of: a) being heratbroken b) recurrent headaches c) exp an imbalance
b) Escape conditioning is the result of negative reinforcement, while avoidance conditioning is the result of negative punishment. c) Escape and avoidance conditioning are both the result of negative reinforcement, but only escape conditioning combines negative reinforcement with classical conditioning. d) Escape and avoidance conditioning are both the result of negative reinforcement, but only avoidance conditioning combines negative reinforcement with classical conditioning. - Escape and avoidance conditioning are both the result of negative reinforcement but only avoidance conditioning combines negative reinforcement with classical conditioning The underlying premise of Ellis' REBT is that dysfunctional behaviours are: a) the result of irrational thoughts and beliefs. b) the result of incongruence between self and experience. c) the result of "automatic thoughts." d) the result of a lack of "awareness - the result of irrational thoughts and beliefs the most likely side effects of propranolol are: a) bradycardia and depression b) tachycardia and mania c) tachycardia and tremor d) bradycardia and hypersomnia - bradycardia and depression (propranolol is a beta-blocker) Bem's self-perception theory; a) our attitudes and behavs are unrelated b) emotions shape our attitudes and behavs c) we infer attitudes from our behavs d) we rely on our attitudes to choose a behav - we infer our attitudes from our behavs Kohlber's cog-dvptl theory distinguishes btwn 3 stages in gender identity dvpt. The first stage is ___________ and involves recog one's own gender and is apparent at 2-3yrs gender constancy
gender conservation gender identity gender stability - gender identity In Gestalt, an optimal contact boundary is semipermeable and coterminous with the actual self. Introjection is one type of boundary disturbance and occurs when: a) the contact boundary is located far in the environment b) the contact boundary is located deep within the self c) the contact boundary is turned back against the self d) the contact boundary is extremely rigid - the contact bounary is located deep within hte self In distinguishing social phobia from agoraphobia, keep in mind that: a) the presence of panic attacks is more indicative of Agoraphobia than Social Phobia b) Agoraphobia involves anxiety in multiple social settings, while Social Phobia is always restricted to one or two settings c) a diagnosis of Social Phobia in adults is made only when the individual is aware that his/her anxiety is unreasonable d) a diagnosis of Agoraphobia in individuals over 18 requires a duration of symptoms for at least six months - a diagnosis of Social Phobia in adults is made only when the individual is aware that his/her anxiety is unreasonable The midbrain contains the following EXCEPT: a) inferior colliculus b) superior colliculus c) sunstantia nigra d) mammillary bodies - mammillary bodies (part of the hypothalamus) Following a head injury, a middle-ages man exps loss of sensation in fingers of his left hand. The damage involved:
b) the child is doing so in order to avoid punishment since, at this age, that is the only reason why children lie. c) the child is probably exhibiting normal behavior since, at this age, children lie for a number of reasons. d) the parents should be concerned since, at this age, lying is very rare and is usually an early sign of pathology. - the child is probably exhibiting normal behavior since, at this age, children lie for a number of reasons. Metcalfe and Mischel use a hot/cool systemto explain which of the following? a)delay of gratification b) risk and resilience c) aggression d) attitude change - delay of gratification Ridley's explanation of distrust that often exists btwn African american clients and their therapist, the therapists ethnicity is most important factor for: a) confluent paranoiac b) cultural paranoiac c) non-paranoiac d) someone who is experiencing dissonance - confluent paranoiac-high cultural and func paranoia and nondisclosure is due to a combination of pathology and the effects of racism Manuel, a college student, moved to USA from mexico with his family when he was 4. He has many Anglo friends and only dates Anglo women. He does not participate in cultural traditions with his family. He considers himself American. He can be described as: a) fused b) separated c) assimilated d) bicultural - assimilated
The DSM requires all EXCEPT for a diag of Transient Tic Disorder a) the presence of one or more motor and/or vocal tics b) a duration of symptoms for no more than six consecutive months c) an onset of symptoms prior to 18 years of age d) the diagnostic criteria for Tourette's Disorder have never been met - a duration of symptoms for no more than six consecutive months Duration must be no less than 4 weeks and no more than 12 months Who distinguishes btwn Steady State, Linear, Spiral & Transitory Career Concepts? a) Super b) Holland c) Driver d) Krumboltz - Driver-he emphasized these career concepts in career decision-making Your research study involves assessing the effects of 2 IVs on 3DVs. You conduct a MANOVA rather than separate factoral ANOVAs to: a) max exptl variance b) control extraneous variable c) increase statistical power d) control experimentwise error rate - control experimentwise error rate-lower probability of making a type I error According to DSM, for approx 30-40% of indviduals with MR seen in clinical settings there is no clear cause. For those for whom the etiology is known-heredity is responsible in ____________ of cases a) less than 1 b) 5 c) 20 d) more than 50 - 5 The Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists (1991) state that:
c) may or may not be required to obtain a waiver of confidentiality from the client d) should provide information about the client only with a court order - c) may or may not be required to obtain a waiver of confidentiality from the client -only provide info without the client's waiver or a court order A 12-year olds boy's mother says her son is very argumentative with adults, doesn't do what he is asked to do, and frequently starts fights with his sister and classmates at school. In addition, in the past year, the boy has skipped school at least a half dozen times, and he ran away from home for two days on three different occasions. The mother has been divorced for threel years, and she notes that these problems started soon after she remarried 14 months jago. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for the boy is: a) Child Antisocial Behavior b) Adjustment Disorder with Disturbance of Conduct c) Oppositional Defiant Disorder d) Conduct Disorder - conduct disorder As described by Piaget, a child in the autonomous stage of moral development beieves that: a) rule violations will be punished b) rules can be changed by consensus c) rules can be changed by authorities only d) rules are made to be broken - rules can be changed by consensus A listener who is processing a persuasive message peripherally (i.e., is using the "peripheral route") is most likely to be persuaded by the messagel if she is: a) bored b) in a good mood c) in a bad mood d) emotionally unstable - in a good mood Among African Americans, high-context communication is manifested in:
a) the use of many words to communicate a message that would require only a few words for a Euro- American b) the use of a few words to communicate a message that would require many words for a Euro- American c) the use of indirect gaze when listening and speaking d) the avoidance of eye contact when listening and speaking - b) the use of a few words to communicate a message that would require many words for a Euro-American (relies more heavily on nonverbal cues) When a test has high sensitivity, this means there is: a) low chance of false negatives and high chance of false positives. b) low chance of false negatives and low chance of false positives. c) high chance of false negatives and high chance of false positives. d) high chance of false negatives and low chance of false positives. - low chance of false negatives and high chance false positives-so most people with the disorder will be identified as having the disorder but there will be some people without the disorder who will also be identified as having the disorder a 4 year old who hates beans gets upset when his mother cuts them into small piece b/c he thinks that he now has to eat more beans. A Piagetian would describe this as an example of which of the following? a) object concept b) transduction c) irreversibility d) decentration - irreversibility (contributes to a child's inability to conserve) People who quit smoking by age 50 reduce thr risk of dying prematurely from a smoking-related illness by ________ a) 85% b) 50% c) 25% d) 10% - 50%