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Certification Exam Guide
Question 1. Which document formally authorizes the creation of the Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB)? A) Project Charter B) Scope Statement C) Integrated Baseline Review (IBR) Report D) Earned Value Management System (EVMS) Procedure Answer: C Explanation: The IBR Report verifies that the PMB is realistic and achievable before work begins, serving as the formal authorization. Question 2. In a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), the lowest level of decomposition is known as: A) Control Account B) Work Package C) Planning Package D) Activity Answer: B Explanation: Work Packages are the smallest units of work that can be scheduled, costed, and assigned to a responsible party. Question 3. Which of the following best describes the purpose of an Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)? A) To define the physical deliverables of the project B) To allocate budget to each WBS element C) To map organizational units to control accounts D) To outline the project schedule logic Answer: C
Certification Exam Guide
Explanation: OBS links responsibility (organizational units) to the work defined in the WBS through control accounts. Question 4. A Control Account is primarily used for: A) Tracking only schedule performance B) Integrating scope, schedule, and cost performance data C) Defining the project’s quality policy D) Managing procurement contracts Answer: B Explanation: Control Accounts are management control points where scope, schedule, and budget are combined for performance measurement. Question 5. Which budgeting element represents funds set aside for “unknown‑unknowns” and is NOT part of the PMB? A) Contingency Reserve B. Management Reserve (MR) C. Undistributed Budget (UB) D. Reserve for Risk Mitigation Answer: B Explanation: Management Reserve is separate from the baseline and used for unforeseen events that cannot be quantified. Question 6. The term “Undistributed Budget (UB)” refers to: A) Budget that has been assigned to a control account but not spent yet B. Funds that are allocated to the management reserve C. Budget for scope that has not yet been assigned to a control account
Certification Exam Guide
B. Percent Complete based on physical evidence C. Weighted Milestones D. Level of Effort (LOE) Answer: C Explanation: Weighted Milestones allocate earned value at predefined milestones throughout the task’s duration. Question 10. Which type of work should be measured using Level of Effort (LOE) to avoid distorting performance data? A. Fabrication of a hardware component B. Conducting a design review meeting C. Installing a software module D. Performing a quality inspection Answer: B Explanation: LOE is appropriate for effort‑type activities like meetings or management tasks that lack tangible deliverables. Question 11. The formula for Schedule Variance (SV) is: A. SV = PV – EV B. SV = EV – PV C. SV = AC – EV D. SV = EV – AC Answer: B Explanation: SV indicates the difference between earned value and planned value; positive SV means ahead of schedule.
Certification Exam Guide
Question 12. A Cost Performance Index (CPI) of 0.85 indicates: A. The project is under budget B. The project is over budget C. The project is on schedule D. The project’s schedule performance is 85% of planned Answer: B Explanation: CPI < 1 means cost overruns; for every $1 of work earned, $1.18 was actually spent. Question 13. Which EAC formula should be used when future work is expected to be performed at the same cost performance as the entire project to date? A. EAC = BAC / CPI B. EAC = AC + (BAC – EV) / CPI C. EAC = AC + (BAC – EV) D. EAC = AC + (BAC – EV) * CPI Answer: A Explanation: When overall CPI is assumed to continue, EAC = BAC / CPI projects the final cost. Question 14. The To‑Complete Performance Index (TCPI) required to meet the original BAC is calculated as: A. (BAC – EV) / (BAC – AC) B. (BAC – EV) / (EAC – AC) C. (BAC – EV) / (BAC – AC) D. (BAC – EV) / (BAC – AC) Answer: C
Certification Exam Guide
D. Is performed only at project closeout Answer: B Explanation: Re‑baselining establishes a new baseline after formal CCB approval; replanning adjusts internal plans without changing the baseline. Question 18. In an Integrated Program Management Data and Analysis Report (IPMDAR) Format 3, which of the following is a required element? A. Detailed resource loading chart B. Narrative variance analysis for each control account C. Earned value performance graphs for the entire program D. List of all open change requests Answer: B Explanation: Format 3 requires a narrative explaining the cause, impact, and corrective action for each significant variance. Question 19. Which of the following is a key characteristic of a compliant Earned Value Management System (EVMS) according to EIA‑748 Guideline 1? A. Use of earned value only for cost reporting B. Integration of cost, schedule, and technical performance data C. Mandatory use of Microsoft Project for scheduling D. Exclusion of management reserve from performance reports Answer: B Explanation: Guideline 1 mandates that an EVMS integrates cost, schedule, and technical performance for comprehensive control. Question 20. Under EIA‑748 Guideline 6, the schedule baseline must be developed using: A. Critical Path Method (CPM) with defined logic links
Certification Exam Guide
B. Rolling wave planning without defined dependencies C. A Gantt chart with only start dates D. Historical data from previous projects only Answer: A Explanation: Guideline 6 requires a CPM‑based schedule with logical relationships to support earned value analysis. Question 21. Which of the following best defines “total float” in the context of earned value analysis? A. The difference between BAC and EAC B. The amount of budget overrun allowed before triggering a variance report C. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting the project finish date D. The proportion of work completed relative to the planned value Answer: C Explanation: Total float measures schedule flexibility for an activity without impacting overall project completion. Question 22. A “Weighted Milestone” earned value method assigns value based on: A. The percentage of time elapsed B. The number of labor hours logged C. Pre‑defined milestone weights reflecting the relative importance of each milestone D. The cost incurred to date Answer: C Explanation: Weighted milestones allocate earned value at each milestone according to preset weights that reflect work significance.
Certification Exam Guide
Explanation: Subjective, undocumented estimates reduce data reliability and violate EVMS guidelines. Question 26. The “Management Reserve Log” is primarily used to: A. Track all earned value calculations for each control account B. Document approvals, usage, and replenishment of the management reserve C. Record schedule baseline changes D. Store historical cost performance indices Answer: B Explanation: The log records when MR is accessed, the justification, and the remaining balance. Question 27. Under EIA‑748 Guideline 16, which accounting principle must be applied to cost accumulation? A. Accrual accounting – costs are recognized when incurred, not when paid B. Cash‑basis accounting – costs are recognized only when cash is disbursed C. Pro‑rata cost allocation based on labor hours only D. Zero‑balanced budgeting for each control account Answer: A Explanation: Guideline 16 requires accrual accounting to ensure costs are recorded when earned, aligning with EVMS. Question 28. Which of the following is a valid reason to create a “Planning Package” rather than a “Work Package”? A. The work is scheduled to start immediately B. The work scope is not yet fully defined, but budget and schedule need to be loaded C. The activity has a fixed‑formula earned value method
Certification Exam Guide
D. The task is a Level of Effort activity Answer: B Explanation: Planning Packages are placeholders for future work where scope is still being refined. Question 29. In a variance analysis narrative, which element is essential for root‑cause identification? A. The projected cost of the next phase B. A description of the event or condition that caused the variance C. The names of all project team members D. The original contract value Answer: B Explanation: Identifying the specific event or condition provides the basis for corrective action. Question 30. Which of the following best describes a “Brier Score” in the context of EVMS data validation? A. A measure of schedule variance magnitude B. A statistical metric that assesses the accuracy of probabilistic forecasts C. A cost index used for contingency calculations D. A baseline change log entry format Answer: B Explanation: The Brier Score evaluates the reliability of probability‑based forecasts, aiding data confidence assessment. Question 31. According to EIA‑748 Guideline 22, an EVMS must produce which of the following reports on a regular basis?
Certification Exam Guide
Question 34. In the context of EVMS, a “baseline change log” must contain which of the following items? A. The original BAC only B. Date, description of change, justification, and impact on PV, EV, AC C. Only the name of the person who approved the change D. The project sponsor’s signature only Answer: B Explanation: The log records comprehensive details of each baseline modification for auditability. Question 35. Which of the following statements about Cost Variance (CV) is true? A. CV = PV – AC B. CV = EV – PV C. CV = EV – AC D. CV = AC – EV Answer: C Explanation: CV measures the monetary difference between earned value and actual cost. Question 36. The “Critical Path” of a schedule is defined as: A. The longest sequence of activities with zero float B. The path with the most resources assigned C. The sequence with the highest cost variance D. The set of activities that can be delayed without affecting the finish date Answer: A Explanation: The critical path has zero total float; any delay directly impacts project completion.
Certification Exam Guide
Question 37. Which of the following is a primary benefit of using a “Performance Measurement Baseline” (PMB)? A. It eliminates the need for a project schedule B. It provides a single integrated reference for scope, schedule, and cost performance measurement C. It guarantees that the project will finish on time and on budget D. It replaces the need for a change control process Answer: B Explanation: The PMB integrates scope, schedule, and budget, enabling consistent performance tracking. Question 38. According to EIA‑748 Guideline 28, what is the required frequency for internal EVMS surveillance audits? A. At least once per project phase B. Only at project closeout C. Every month for the duration of the project D. Whenever a variance exceeds 10 % Answer: A Explanation: Guideline 28 mandates periodic internal audits, typically at each major phase, to ensure compliance. Question 39. Which of the following best describes “forecasting using the CPI of the remaining work” (EAC = AC + (BAC – EV)/CPI₍ᵣ₎)? A. It assumes future work will be performed at the same cost efficiency as past performance B. It assumes future work will be performed at the same cost efficiency as the remaining work’s CPI estimate
Certification Exam Guide
B. Adding actual cost (AC) to the schedule variance (SV) C. Subtracting the cost variance (CV) from the planned value (PV) D. Summing the management reserve used on the work package Answer: A Explanation: EV = BAC × % complete, reflecting the budgeted value of work actually performed. Question 43. Which of the following statements about “contingency reserve” is correct? A. It is part of the Performance Measurement Baseline B. It is used for unknown‑unknowns only C. It is allocated to individual control accounts to cover identified risks D. It cannot be adjusted once the project starts Answer: C Explanation: Contingency is incorporated into the PMB and is assigned to control accounts to address known risks. Question 44. The “Earned Value Management System (EVMS) Surveillance” process primarily ensures: A. The project stays under budget B. Compliance with EIA‑748 guidelines and data integrity C. All change requests are approved within 24 hours D. The schedule is updated daily Answer: B Explanation: Surveillance monitors adherence to standards and validates the reliability of EV data.
Certification Exam Guide
Question 45. Which of the following is an example of a “non‑value‑adding” activity that should be measured with LOE? A. Manufacturing a component B. Conducting a risk assessment workshop C. Installing software D. Performing a functional test Answer: B Explanation: Workshops are effort‑type activities without tangible product output, suitable for LOE measurement. Question 46. Under EIA‑748 Guideline 9, which of the following is required for a control account? A. A dedicated project manager must be assigned B. A baseline budget, schedule, and performance measurement plan must exist C. All activities must be performed by external contractors D. The control account must be approved by the sponsor before work begins Answer: B Explanation: Guideline 9 mandates that each control account have an integrated baseline and performance plan. Question 47. Which earned value metric is most directly useful for evaluating cost efficiency of work performed to date? A. Schedule Variance (SV) B. Cost Performance Index (CPI) C. To‑Complete Performance Index (TCPI) D. Variance at Completion (VAC) Answer: B
Certification Exam Guide
D. 32
Answer: D Explanation: There are 32 EIA‑748 guidelines that define a compliant EVMS. Question 51. Which of the following best describes a “Control Account Manager” (CAM) responsibility? A. Developing the overall project charter B. Approving all change requests across the project C. Managing scope, schedule, and cost for a specific control account and reporting performance data D. Conducting the final project closeout audit Answer: C Explanation: The CAM is accountable for the performance of their assigned control account. Question 52. In a CPM schedule, a “lead” relationship between two activities means: A. The successor can start only after the predecessor finishes B. The successor can start before the predecessor finishes, overlapping by the lead amount C. The predecessor must be delayed to accommodate the successor D. The activities are independent and have no logical link Answer: B Explanation: Lead allows overlapping execution, reducing overall duration. Question 53. Which of the following is the correct definition of “Budget at Completion (BAC)”? A. The total cost incurred to date
Certification Exam Guide
B. The authorized budget for the work defined in the baseline C. The amount of management reserve remaining D. The forecasted final cost of the project Answer: B Explanation: BAC is the total budget approved for the baseline scope. Question 54. Which EV method would you apply to a task that is 30 % physically complete, based on measurable inspection results? A. Fixed Formula (50/50) B. Percent Complete – Physical Evidence C. Weighted Milestones D. Level of Effort (LOE) Answer: B Explanation: Physical‑evidence percent complete directly reflects measured progress. Question 55. The “Schedule Variance (SV)” of – $200 k indicates: A. The project is ahead of schedule by $200 k worth of work B. The project is behind schedule by $200 k worth of work C. The project cost is $200 k under budget D. The project cost is $200 k over budget Answer: B Explanation: Negative SV means less earned value than planned, i.e., behind schedule. Question 56. Which of the following is NOT a typical input to the Earned Value Management System? A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
