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Professional FlashArray Practice Exam
Question 1. Which document outlines the specific tasks, timelines, and responsibilities for a Pure Storage FlashArray implementation? A) Service Level Agreement (SLA) B) Implementation Workbook C) Data Protection Policy D) Change Management Form Answer: B Explanation: The Implementation Workbook is the primary guide that details tasks, timelines, and responsibilities for the deployment. Question 2. When verifying system sizing, which FlashArray model is best suited for workloads requiring the highest IOPS and lowest latency? A) FlashArray//C B) FlashArray//X C) FlashArray//XL D) FlashArray//E Answer: C Explanation: FlashArray//XL provides the highest performance with NVMe technology, delivering the greatest IOPS and lowest latency. Question 3. Which power outlet type is commonly used for FlashArray controllers in a U.S. data center? A) C13/C B) C19/C C) NEMA 5‑15P D) IEC 60320‑L
Professional FlashArray Practice Exam
Answer: B Explanation: FlashArray controllers typically require C19/C20 outlets for their higher power draw. Question 4. What is the recommended minimum rack space (U) for a single‑controller FlashArray//X chassis? A) 2U B) 4U C) 6U D) 8U Answer: B Explanation: FlashArray//X occupies 4U of rack space, allowing room for power supplies and cable management. Question 5. Which of the following is a prerequisite for configuring iSCSI traffic on a FlashArray? A) Enable Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) B) Assign a dedicated VLAN for iSCSI C) Disable NTP service D) Set up a DNS forwarder Answer: B Explanation: iSCSI traffic should be isolated on a dedicated VLAN to ensure performance and security. Question 6. During pre‑installation, which server role must be verified for receiving email alerts from the FlashArray? A) DHCP server B) SMTP server
Professional FlashArray Practice Exam
B) pureadm stop C) purearray reboot D) puredrive evacuate Answer: B Explanation: pureadm stop gracefully stops the controller services, preparing it for removal. Question 10. Before performing an Evergreen XFORM upgrade, what temporary resource might be required? A) Additional DNS server B) Swing shelf for capacity overflow C) Extra NTP server D) Secondary SMTP relay Answer: B Explanation: A swing shelf provides temporary capacity while data is moved during an XFORM upgrade. Question 11. Which host multipathing software is commonly used on Windows servers with FlashArray? A) PowerPath B) Device Mapper C) MPIO D) LVM Answer: C Explanation: Microsoft Multipath I/O (MPIO) is the native multipathing solution for Windows. Question 12. What is the first step when accessing a brand‑new FlashArray for initial setup?
Professional FlashArray Practice Exam
A) Log in via the web GUI using default credentials B) Connect to the console port and run the setup wizard C) SSH into the array using the management IP D) Use the Pure1 portal to claim the array Answer: B Explanation: The initial configuration is performed through the console port using the built‑in setup wizard. Question 13. Which IP address type is used for the Replication interface on a FlashArray controller? A) IPv4 link‑local address B) IPv6 unique local address C) Public IPv4 address D) Private IPv4 address from the management subnet Answer: D Explanation: Replication traffic uses a private IPv4 address that belongs to the management subnet. Question 14. After creating a new Pureuser account, which feature should be configured to enforce least‑privilege access? A) Global admin rights B) Role‑Based Access Control (RBAC) C) Password complexity policy only D) Disable MFA Answer: B Explanation: RBAC allows administrators to assign specific permissions, adhering to the principle of least privilege.
Professional FlashArray Practice Exam
Explanation: Thin provisioning reserves logical capacity but only consumes physical storage as data is written. Question 18. Which protocol requires zoning configuration on the SAN switch before host connectivity can be established? A) iSCSI B) NFS C) Fibre Channel (FC) D) SMB Answer: C Explanation: FC relies on zoning to control which WWNs can communicate through the switch. Question 19. Which command is used to admit a new DirectFlash Shelf (DFS) into an existing array? A) purearray add‑shelf B) puredrive admit C) pureadm shelf‑add D) purehost register‑shelf Answer: B Explanation: puredrive admit validates and brings the new shelf online. Question 20. During a controller swap, what state should the standby controller be in before the primary is removed? A) Offline B) Standby (active‑ready) C) Maintenance mode
Professional FlashArray Practice Exam
D) Degraded Answer: B Explanation: The standby controller must be active‑ready to take over workloads seamlessly. Question 21. Which of the following is a key benefit of the Evergreen XFORM upgrade path? A) Requires a full system outage B) Allows in‑place conversion from SAS to NVMe without data migration C) Needs a separate swing shelf for all upgrades D) Only supports firmware upgrades, not hardware changes Answer: B Explanation: Evergreen XFORM enables a non‑disruptive conversion from SAS to NVMe while preserving data. Question 22. Which CLI command displays the health status of all drives in the array? A) purearray health – drives B) puredrive list – detail C) pureadm status – drives D) purehost show – drives Answer: B Explanation: puredrive list – detail provides a detailed view of each drive’s health. Question 23. What is the purpose of configuring an NTP server on a FlashArray? A) Provide DNS resolution for hosts B) Synchronize system clocks for accurate logging and replication timestamps
Professional FlashArray Practice Exam
A) Thin provisioning B) Data deduplication only C) Inline deduplication and compression (Data Reduction) D) Snapshot cloning Answer: C Explanation: Data Reduction on FlashArray performs both deduplication and compression inline. Question 27. Which command creates a new volume of 500 GB with thin provisioning? A) purevol create – size 500G – thin myvol B) purevol create – size 500G – type thin myvol C) purevol new – size 500G – thin myvol D) purevol add – size 500G – thin myvol Answer: B Explanation: The –type thin flag indicates thin provisioning during volume creation. Question 28. Which host identifier is used for iSCSI registration on a FlashArray? A) WWPN B) IQN C) MAC address D) UUID Answer: B Explanation: iSCSI hosts are identified by their Initiator Qualified Name (IQN). Question 29. What is the recommended action if a drive reports a “Predictive Failure” status?
Professional FlashArray Practice Exam
A) Immediately replace the drive and evacuate data B) Ignore the warning until the drive fails C) Reboot the array to clear the status D) Disable the drive in the CLI Answer: A Explanation: Predictive failure indicates imminent hardware loss; proactive replacement prevents data loss. Question 30. Which of the following describes a “swing shelf” in the context of a FlashArray upgrade? A) A shelf used for temporary capacity during data migration B) A shelf that provides redundant power supplies C) A shelf dedicated to snapshot storage only D) A shelf that hosts the management interface Answer: A Explanation: A swing shelf temporarily holds data while capacity is rebalanced during upgrades. Question 31. Which CLI command is used to verify that all array ports are up and operational? A) pureport status – all B) purearray list – ports C) pureport list – detail D) pureadm port‑check Answer: C Explanation: pureport list – detail shows the status of each physical port.
Professional FlashArray Practice Exam
Question 35. Which of the following best describes the “two‑phase” nature of a Purity NDU? A) Phase 1 upgrades the firmware, Phase 2 upgrades the hardware B) Phase 1 upgrades the primary controller, Phase 2 upgrades the standby controller C) Phase 1 upgrades the array’s OS, Phase 2 validates workloads D) Phase 1 performs a backup, Phase 2 restores data Answer: B Explanation: In an NDU, each controller is upgraded sequentially to maintain availability. Question 36. When adding a new DirectFlash Module (DFM) to increase capacity, which step must be performed after physical installation? A) Reboot the array B) Run puredrive admit to bring the DFM online C) Delete all existing snapshots D) Disable the management interface Answer: B Explanation: puredrive admit validates and integrates the new DFM into the array’s capacity pool. Question 37. Which command displays the current Data Reduction Ratio (DRR) for the array? A) purearray drratio B) purevol drratio – all C) purearray list – reduction D) purearray show – dr Answer: C Explanation: purearray list – reduction reports the overall DRR.
Professional FlashArray Practice Exam
Question 38. What is the primary purpose of configuring directory services (e.g., AD or LDAP) on a FlashArray? A) To provide DNS resolution for hosts B) To enable centralized user authentication for GUI and API access C) To manage IP address allocation D) To store snapshots externally Answer: B Explanation: Directory services allow administrators to authenticate using existing corporate credentials. Question 39. Which of the following is a recommended practice after completing a hardware upgrade? A) Delete all snapshots created before the upgrade B) Run a full health check and verify all ports and drives are online C) Disable NTP until the array stabilizes D) Re‑assign the management IP address to a new subnet Answer: B Explanation: Post‑upgrade health verification ensures the system is fully functional. Question 40. Which command is used to generate a new API token for automation purposes? A) pureapi token create B) puretoken generate C) pureadm token – new D) pureuser token add Answer: A
Professional FlashArray Practice Exam
Answer: A Explanation: purevol snapshot – list displays snapshots associated with the given volume. Question 44. During a controller upgrade, what is the purpose of the “Graceful Shutdown” step? A) To erase all data on the controller B) To stop I/O services cleanly, ensuring no in‑flight writes are lost C) To reset the network configuration D) To disable the standby controller Answer: B Explanation: Graceful shutdown ensures that all pending I/O is completed before the controller is removed. Question 45. Which of the following best describes the function of “Port Card” upgrades? A) Increase the number of management interfaces only B) Add or replace host connectivity interfaces such as FC or Ethernet/iSCSI ports C) Provide additional power supplies D) Enable RAID‑5 on the array Answer: B Explanation: Port cards are hardware modules that provide host connectivity options. Question 46. Which command verifies that the array’s NTP service is synchronized? A) pureadm ntp‑status B) purearray show – ntp C) puretime status
Professional FlashArray Practice Exam
D) purearray ntp sync Answer: C Explanation: puretime status reports NTP synchronization status. Question 47. When configuring replication, what does “Async” mode imply? A) Data is replicated in real‑time with zero latency B) Replication occurs after a configurable delay, reducing impact on primary performance C) Only metadata is replicated D) Replication uses Fibre Channel only Answer: B Explanation: Asynchronous replication batches changes and applies them later, minimizing impact. Question 48. Which of the following is a primary benefit of using DirectFlash Shelves (DFS) in a FlashArray deployment? A) They provide additional compute resources B) They enable scalable capacity expansion without disrupting existing workloads C) They replace the need for controllers D) They act as backup tape libraries Answer: B Explanation: DFS adds capacity modularly while keeping the array operational. Question 49. What is the recommended method to verify that DNS resolution is working for the array’s hostname? A) Ping the management IP address B) Run pureadm dns‑test command
Professional FlashArray Practice Exam
B) VLAN ID on the iSCSI service interface C) VLAN ID on the replication interface D) No VLAN configuration is required for iSCSI Answer: B Explanation: The iSCSI service interface must be assigned the correct VLAN ID for traffic segregation. Question 53. Which of the following is a valid reason to perform a “Shelf Evacuation” before removing a DirectFlash Shelf? A) To increase the DRR ratio B) To ensure all data is moved off the shelf, preventing data loss C) To reset the array’s NTP configuration D) To change the array’s hostname Answer: B Explanation: Evacuation copies data to other shelves, making removal safe. Question 54. Which CLI command provides a summary of array health, including controllers, drives, and ports? A) purehealth status B) purearray health – summary C) pureadm health – all D) purearray list – health Answer: B Explanation: purearray health – summary gives a concise health overview.
Professional FlashArray Practice Exam
Question 55. Which feature allows a FlashArray to automatically fail over to a secondary site in case of a disaster? A) Local Snapshots B) Synchronous Replication with failover groups C) Data Reduction D) Host Group mirroring Answer: B Explanation: Synchronous replication with failover groups provides near‑zero RPO disaster recovery. Question 56. During a non‑disruptive hardware upgrade, which state indicates that a controller is ready to be removed? A) Offline – maintenance mode B) Active – primary C) Standby – ready D) Degraded – error Answer: C Explanation: “Standby – ready” shows the controller is not handling I/O and can be swapped. Question 57. Which of the following commands would you use to verify that all hosts have balanced I/O across their paths? A) purehost iops – balance B) pureport stats – host C) purehost list – detail D) pureadm path‑check Answer: B
