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Question 1. Which weight figure represents the heaviest allowable aircraft mass before the landing phase, assuming all fuel is burned? A) Maximum Ramp Weight (MRW) B) Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW) C) Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW) D) Maximum Landing Weight (MLW) Answer: D Explanation: MLW is the highest weight at which the aircraft is certified to land safely after fuel has been consumed. Question 2. The center of gravity (CG) limit for takeoff is most critical because: A) It affects the aircraft’s stall speed only. B) It determines the maximum thrust the engines can produce. C) It influences aircraft controllability during rotation and climb. D) It has no effect on takeoff performance. Answer: C Explanation: An aft or forward CG outside limits can cause control difficulties during rotation, climb, and can lead to runway excursions. Question 3. Design Maneuvering Speed (V A) is: A) The maximum speed at which the aircraft can be flown in turbulence. B) The speed at which the aircraft must be flown to achieve maximum lift. C) The speed below which full-control deflections will not overstress the airframe. D) The minimum speed for takeoff. Answer: C
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Explanation: V A is the speed at which the aircraft’s structure can tolerate abrupt control inputs without damage; above V A, a full deflection could exceed structural limits. Question 4. When the aircraft is loaded at 80 % of its MTOW, the V A for that weight will be: A) Higher than at MTOW. B) Lower than at MTOW. C) Equal to V A at MTOW. D) Unrelated to weight. Answer: B Explanation: V A decreases with decreasing weight because the structure can tolerate larger control forces at lower mass. Question 5. The maximum flap-extended speed (V FE) for flap position 2 is: A) Higher than V FE for full flaps. B) Lower than V FE for full flaps. C) The same for all flap positions. D) Not published in the aircraft flight manual. Answer: A Explanation: Each flap setting has its own V FE; smaller flap extensions have higher allowable speeds than full-flap configurations. Question 6. Which environmental limitation restricts the aircraft from operating above 41 000 ft (typical service ceiling)? A) Maximum demonstrated crosswind. B) Maximum operating altitude.
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Question 9. Which engine rating is used for a takeoff when an airline wants to maximize thrust for a short runway? A) Flex (or Max Continuous). B) TOGA (Take-Off/Go-Around). C) Cruise thrust. D) Idle thrust. Answer: B Explanation: TOGA is the highest thrust setting for takeoff and go-around, providing maximum engine performance for short-runway operations. Question 10. Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT) limits for starting an engine are primarily set to protect: A) The turbine blades from overheating. B) The fuel pumps from over-pressurization. C) The hydraulic system from contamination. D) The avionics cooling system. Answer: A Explanation: High EGT during start can cause turbine blade damage; therefore, start-up EGT limits are strictly enforced. Question 11. The Maximum Continuous Thrust (MCT) rating is used for: A) Takeoff on long runways. B) Climb after takeoff when a reduced thrust is acceptable. C) Engine shutdown procedures. D) Taxiing on the ground. Answer: B Explanation: MCT is a derated thrust setting used during climb to reduce engine wear while still providing adequate performance.
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Question 12. N1 and N2 RPM limits are: A) Identical for all turbofan engines. B) Unrelated to engine thrust. C) Specified as maximum percentages of rated speed for each engine mode. D) Only applicable to turboprop engines. Answer: C Explanation: N1 (fan speed) and N2 (core speed) have maximum allowable percentages that vary with power settings and engine type. Question 13. Oil temperature “green-arc” range indicates: A) The oil is too cold for normal operation. B) The oil is within normal operating limits. C) The oil is overheating and must be cooled. D) The oil pressure is abnormal. Answer: B Explanation: The green-arc on the oil temperature gauge shows the normal, acceptable temperature range for the engine oil. Question 14. The maximum starter engagement time for most large turbofan engines is: A) 10 seconds. B) 30 seconds. C) 60 seconds. D) Unlimited, as long as the battery is charged. Answer: B
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Answer: B Explanation: APU bleed air supply diminishes with altitude; the certification limit for dual-pack operation is typically around 25 000 ft. Question 18. Electrical load limits at high altitude are imposed because: A) The generators produce more power at altitude. B) Battery capacity increases with lower temperature. C) The aircraft’s wiring insulation can overheat due to lower cooling air density. D) There is no effect of altitude on electrical systems. Answer: C Explanation: At high altitude, reduced ambient cooling can cause overheating of electrical components if loads exceed limits. Question 19. The autopilot engagement minimum altitude for most transport aircraft is: A) 0 ft (ground). B) 100 ft AGL. C) 500 ft AGL. D) 1 000 ft AGL. Answer: B Explanation: Autopilot systems are typically allowed to be engaged after the aircraft has passed 100 ft above ground, ensuring sufficient aerodynamic stability. Question 20. The maximum wind speed for a certified autoland operation is: A) 25 kt headwind, 20 kt crosswind, 15 kt tailwind.
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B) 30 kt headwind, 30 kt crosswind, 30 kt tailwind. C) 20 kt headwind, 15 kt crosswind, 10 kt tailwind. D) Autoland has no wind-speed limitation. Answer: A Explanation: Autoland certifications specify maximum wind components to ensure the system can maintain runway alignment and safe touchdown. Question 21. Flap/Slat inhibition logic prevents deployment when: A) The aircraft is above V MO. B) The landing gear is retracted. C) The engine thrust is at idle. D) The cabin pressure is low. Answer: A Explanation: The flight control system inhibits flap or slat movement if the aircraft exceeds its maximum operating speed to protect structures. Question 22. The maximum differential pressure (ΔP) allowed in the pneumatic system is: A) 10 psi. B) 30 psi. C) 50 psi. D) Unlimited, as long as the bleed valve is open. Answer: B Explanation: Pneumatic systems are designed for a specific maximum ΔP; exceeding it can cause component rupture or system failure. Question 23. The safety valve in the air-conditioning system is set to open at a negative pressure of:
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Question 26. Minimum fuel temperature for takeoff is set to prevent: A) Fuel freezing in the tanks. B) Excessive fuel vapor pressure. C) Engine oil contamination. D) Hydraulic fluid thickening. Answer: A Explanation: Low fuel temperatures can cause ice formation, which may block fuel filters and lead to engine flameout. Question 27. Normal hydraulic pressure for the primary flight-control system on most airliners is: A) 1500 psi ± 10 %. B) 2000 psi ± 5 %. C) 3000 psi ± 5 %. D) 3500 psi ± 10 %. Answer: C Explanation: Primary flight-control hydraulics typically operate at around 3000 psi to provide sufficient force for control surface movement. Question 28. The accumulator pre-charge pressure for the secondary hydraulic system is typically set to: A) 100 psi. B) 200 psi. C) 300 psi. D) 400 psi. Answer: B Explanation: Pre-charging the accumulator to about 200 psi ensures immediate hydraulic power availability upon system demand.
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Question 29. In a loss-of-braking scenario after touchdown, the first action is to: A) Deploy reverse thrust. B) Apply maximum nose-wheel steering. C) Engage the parking brake. D) Exit the aircraft immediately. Answer: A Explanation: Reverse thrust provides the most effective deceleration when wheel brakes are unavailable. Question 30. During an emergency descent, the pilot should initially set the pitch to: A) 0 ° (level). B) –5 °. C) –10 °. D) +5 °. Answer: C Explanation: A negative pitch of about –10 ° yields a rapid descent while maintaining airspeed within safe limits. Question 31. When the airspeed indicator becomes unreliable during climb, the correct memory item is to: A) Maintain current thrust and pitch. B) Reduce thrust to idle. C) Use pitch-and-power settings from the “unreliable airspeed” table. D) Turn off the pitot-static system. Answer: C
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Answer: B Explanation: TOGA thrust and a nose-up pitch provide the best chance to escape the windshear while maintaining energy. Question 35. The first step after an engine flameout in flight is to: A) Immediately shut down the remaining engine. B) Pull the fire-handle and feather the propeller (if applicable). C) Apply maximum thrust on the operating engine and initiate a restart procedure. D) Deploy the landing gear. Answer: C Explanation: Maintaining thrust on the remaining engine and attempting a restart is the primary action to preserve altitude. Question 36. If a fire is detected in an engine, the memory item includes: A) Pull the fire-handle, close the fuel shutoff, and discharge the fire extinguishers. B) Increase thrust on the affected engine. C) Turn off all electrical systems. D) Deploy the emergency oxygen masks only. Answer: A Explanation: Pulling the fire-handle cuts fuel, hydraulic, and bleed air, then the extinguishers are discharged to suppress the fire. Question 37. When smoke or fumes are present in the cabin, the crew must: A) Open all windows. B) Don oxygen masks and initiate a rapid descent if required.
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C) Turn off the APU. D) Continue the flight to the destination. Answer: B Explanation: Smoke/fume conditions require immediate use of oxygen and, if necessary, a descent to a safe altitude. Question 38. Normal Law in fly-by-wire aircraft provides: A) No flight-control protections. B) Full envelope protection, including angle-of-attack and load-factor limits. C) Only a pitch-rate limit. D) Direct law with no automatic trimming. Answer: B Explanation: Normal Law includes comprehensive protections that prevent exceedance of structural limits and maintain safe flight parameters. Question 39. When the aircraft transitions from Normal Law to Alternate Law, which protection is lost? A) Stall protection. B) Pitch-rate limiting. C) Load-factor limiting. D) All protections remain. Answer: C Explanation: In Alternate Law, load-factor protection is removed, though some basic protections like stall protection remain. Question 40. Direct Law differs from Normal Law primarily because: A) It provides full envelope protection.
Items Ultimate Exam
Question 43. Operating with the landing gear down for an extended cruise segment is considered a: A) Normal operation. B) Configuration Deviation (CDL) that may affect performance calculations. C) Mandatory procedure for fuel saving. D) Recommended practice for long-range flights. Answer: B Explanation: Keeping the gear down creates additional drag; the crew must account for this configuration deviation in performance planning. Question 44. If the flaps fail to extend on approach, the pilot should: A) Continue the approach at the same speed. B) Increase the approach speed by the flap-extension penalty and execute a go-around. C) Deploy the spoilers to compensate. D) Land immediately without further action. Answer: B Explanation: Without flaps, the aircraft requires a higher approach speed; a go-around allows a safe re-assessment of the situation. Question 45. The maximum takeoff tailwind component for most transport aircraft is: A) 0 kt (tailwind not permitted). B) 5 kt. C) 10 kt. D) 15 kt. Answer: C
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Explanation: Tailwinds increase required runway length; certification typically limits takeoff tailwinds to 10 kt. Question 46. The maximum demonstrated crosswind on a wet runway is generally: A) 20 kt. B) 30 kt. C) 40 kt. D) 50 kt. Answer: B Explanation: Wet runway conditions reduce directional control, so the demonstrated crosswind limit is lower than on a dry runway, often around 30 kt. Question 47. The maximum operating limit speed (V MO) is: A) The speed at which the aircraft must be flown during cruise. B) The absolute maximum speed the aircraft may not exceed under any circumstances. C) The same as the maximum flap-extended speed. D) Only applicable during descent. Answer: B Explanation: V MO is the structural speed limit; exceeding it can cause irreversible damage. Question 48. The maximum landing gear operating speed (V LO) is: A) The speed at which the gear may be extended or retracted. B) The speed limit for gear-up flight. C) The same as V MO.
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B) Ensure the structural weight of the aircraft without fuel does not exceed design limits. C) Determine the maximum payload. D) Set the minimum fuel required for a flight. Answer: B Explanation: ZFW is the total aircraft weight excluding usable fuel; it protects the airframe from being overloaded when fuel is burned. Question 52. When the aircraft’s CG is forward of the takeoff limit, the most likely effect is: A) Reduced takeoff roll distance. B) Increased nose-wheel steering authority. C) Higher required takeoff thrust and longer roll. D) Automatic trim correction by the autopilot. Answer: C Explanation: A forward CG reduces lift at the tail, requiring more thrust and a longer runway to achieve rotation. Question 53. The maximum demonstrated crosswind on a contaminated runway (snow/ice) is typically: A) 10 kt. B) 15 kt. C) 20 kt. D) 25 kt. Answer: B Explanation: Contaminated surfaces further degrade directional control, so the demonstrated limit is lower, often around 15 kt.
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Question 54. The maximum permissible static thrust (TOGA) for a turbofan engine is limited by: A) Ambient temperature only. B) Engine inlet temperature, turbine inlet temperature, and N1/N2 limits. C) The number of passengers on board. D) The position of the landing gear. Answer: B Explanation: Engine thrust is constrained by multiple parameters, including temperature limits and rotational speed limits. Question 55. During an engine start, the EGT must remain below the limit for: A) The first 10 seconds only. B) the entire start sequence until the engine reaches idle. C) Only after the starter disengages. D) Only when N2 exceeds 30 %. Answer: B Explanation: Continuous monitoring of EGT ensures the turbine does not overheat during the entire start process. Question 56. The oil pressure “green-arc” range is important because: A) It indicates the engine is at maximum thrust. B) Pressures outside this range can cause insufficient lubrication or oil system damage. C) It is used to calculate fuel flow. D) It determines the hydraulic system pressure. Answer: B
