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Genetics 2026 worksheet 1 key Martin Poeine
Typology: Exams
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A A a a B B b b
The Essence So this problem boils down to the probability of 1 outcome times the number of outcomes of that type. The number of outcomes is given by the factorial part of the problem. The probability of single individual being normal ¾ (AA 2Aa) so probability of 3 being normal is ¾ x ¾ x ¾ = 27/64. The probability of 2 being albino is ¼ x ¼ = 1/16 = 4/64 so the probability of getting this outcome (3 normal, 2 albino) is 27/64 x 1/ Convert to decimal 27/64 x 1/16 = .42 x .0625 = .02625 There are 10 of ways of getting that outcome so .02625 x 10 = .2625 = 26%
13 Part B This is the second part of the problem. Now we will consider what happens if 1/6000 people carry the d allele. If 1/6000 people have the allele, then 5999/6000 don’t have the allele (they are DD). Therefor 5999/6000 are DD and therefore the chance that II-2 is heterozygous is ½. But the 1/6000 is Dd which would make the odds of II-2 being heterozygous 2/3. So with this, we can calculate the new probability that II-2 is heterozygous. It is 5999/6000 x ½ + 1/6000 x 2/3 = 18,001 / 36000 Note if you understand and follow this so far, there is a simpler way. The effect of having the recessive allele in the population is to move from II-2 having a probability of carrying the recessive allele from ½ towards a probability of 2/3. The difference between ½ and 2/3 is 1/6. So one can multiply 1/6000 x 1/6 and add that to the ½. So 1/6 x 1/6000 = 1/36000 + 18000/ 36000 = 18,001 / 36000 In either case, now one can finish answering the question of what is the chance that III-1 has the disease. If we new that I-2 was DD the answer would have been ½ x 2/3 x 1/4. Now, given the presence of d in the population it would be 18001/36000 x 2/3 x ¼
There is a shortcut as long as you understand what is going on. You can look and say the chance of having the D allele is 1/3 of ½ compared to ½ This is 1/6 to 3/6 which is a 1:3 ratio which again = 1/