Anatomy and Physiology: Blood and Urine Analysis, Exams of Medicine

Various topics related to blood and urine analysis, including the segment between two waveforms, chemical components of blood, blood vessels, leukocytes, urine examination, and tort law. It also includes information on common tests, quality control, and patient identification.

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2023/2024

Available from 02/14/2024

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(NHA) Medical Assisting
Certification Study Guide
exam test
1. CC - Correct answer Chief Complaint
2. Segment - Correct answer Line between two waveforms
3. P Wave - Correct answer Arterial Depolarization
4. How many 1mm boxes are in a 6 second rhythm strip? -
Correct answer 30 one millimeter boxes
5. The SA node represents which waveform on the EKG? -
Correct answer Only the P wave
6. What is the reading you can get from the RR interval? -
Correct answer Ventricular Pulse
7. What is the primary stage of Hemolysis? - Correct answer
Vascular phase and platelet phase together
8. What is Electrophoresis? - Correct answer Analyzation of the
chemical components of blood, e.g. hemoglobin, serum,
urine, cerebrospinal fluid based on electrical charge.
9. Positive testing for occult blood in a stool sample turns which
color? - Correct answer Turns blue on a positive test for
occult blood in feces
10. The stages of Hemostasis - Correct answer 1. Vascular,
2. Platelet Phase, 3. Coagulation Phase,
11. 4. Fibronolysis
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(NHA) Medical Assisting

Certification Study Guide

exam test

  1. CC - Correct answer Chief Complaint
  2. Segment - Correct answer Line between two waveforms
  3. P Wave - Correct answer Arterial Depolarization
  4. How many 1mm boxes are in a 6 second rhythm strip? - Correct answer 30 one millimeter boxes
  5. The SA node represents which waveform on the EKG? - Correct answer Only the P wave
  6. What is the reading you can get from the RR interval? - Correct answer Ventricular Pulse
  7. What is the primary stage of Hemolysis? - Correct answer Vascular phase and platelet phase together
  8. What is Electrophoresis? - Correct answer Analyzation of the chemical components of blood, e.g. hemoglobin, serum, urine, cerebrospinal fluid based on electrical charge.
  9. Positive testing for occult blood in a stool sample turns which color? - Correct answer Turns blue on a positive test for occult blood in feces
  10. The stages of Hemostasis - Correct answer 1. Vascular,
    1. Platelet Phase, 3. Coagulation Phase,
    1. Fibronolysis
  1. Blood vessels - Correct answer Aorta, Arteries, Arterioles, Capillaries, Venues, Veins, Superior and Inferior Vena Cavae
  2. Outer connective tissue layer of a blood vessel - Correct answer Tunica Adventitia
  3. Inner endothelial tissue of a blood vessel - Correct answer Tunica Intima
  4. The inner smooth layer of a blood vessel - Correct answer Tunica tunica media
  5. The standards of right and wrong in a medical setting - Correct answer Code of Ethics
  6. What do you find in capillaries? - Correct answer A mixture of venous and arterial blood is found
  7. The average adult has how many liters of blood? - Correct answer 5-6 Liters
  8. What is the percentage of water in the blood? - Correct answer 92%
  9. Percentage of plasma in the blood? - Correct answer 55%
  10. Percentage of formed elements in the blood? - Correct answer 45%
  11. 99% of formed elements in the blood - Correct answer RBC,s or Erythrocytes
  12. Where do you find hemoglobin? - Correct answer RBC,s
  13. Where do all blood cells originate? - Correct answer Bone marrow
  1. Test used to evaluate the extrinsic pathway and also used to monitor warfarin therapy - Correct answer PT
  2. Fibrinolysis - Correct answer Breakdown and removal of a clot
  3. Converts the temporary platelet plug in a stable fibrin clot - Correct answer Coagulation Phase
  4. 2nd choice vein for venipuncture and most often the only one palatable in an obese Pt. - Correct answer Cephalic vein
  5. Antiseptics used in Phlebotomy - Correct answer 70% isopropyl alcohol pads most common, provolone - iodine for BC,s and Chlorhexidine gluconate for patients that are allergic to Betadine/ Iodine
  6. Length of needle commonly used in venipuncture - Correct answer 1 inch (up to 1.5")
  7. Average gauge of needle used for drawing blood - Correct answer 21-
  8. Gauge of needle that can cause hemolysis - Correct answer smaller than 23 gauge
  9. 3 skills of the phlebotomist - Correct answer Social, clerical, technical
  10. Analytical errors during collection of blood - Correct answer Extended tourniquet time, hemolysis, wrong order of draw, failure to invert tubes, faulty technique under filling tubes
  11. Analytical errors before collection of blood - Correct answer Patient misidentification, improper time, wrong tubes, not fasting, exercise (Cortisol levels), Pt. Posture, Poor

coordination with other treatments, improper site prep, medication interference

  1. Analytical errors After collection of blood - Correct answer Failure to separate serum from cell (Glycolisis), improper use of serum separator (Not inverting tubes or not spinning tubes), delays in processing, exposure to light, improper storage conditions, dimming clots
  2. Fistula - Correct answer Permanent surgical connection between an artery and a vein, never used for venipuncture
  3. Edima - Correct answer Accumulation of fluid in tissue
  4. Thrombophlebitis - Correct answer Inflammation of a blood clot formation
  5. Explanation of Hemoconcentration - Correct answer The increase in proportion of formed elements to plasma caused by leaving on the tourniquet for more than two minutes
  6. Consequence of insufficient pressure applied after withdrawal of a needle - Correct answer Thrombus
  7. Additives in a green top tube - Correct answer Heparin, sodium, lithium, ammonium
  8. Why is the green top tube never used for hematology? - Correct answer Green tops additive heparin interferes with the Wright's stained blood test
  9. Common tests for the lavender EDTA tube - Correct answer CBC, differential or diff, ESR, sickle cell screening
  10. Common tests for this color tube are Chemistry tests performed on plasma such as ammonia, carboxyhemoglobin and STAT electrolytes - Correct answer Green top tube (Heparin) tests
  1. what will occur if you puncture the heel too deep? More than 2mm - Correct answer Osteomyalitis
  2. what are the identification requirements for the blood bank? - Correct answer Patients full name or DOB, Hospital ID# or SNN for outpatient care, date and time of collection as well as the phlebotomist's initials
  3. What does the toxicology section of the lab analyze? - Correct answer Plasma levels of drugs and poisons
  4. What is the percentage of the population with the D antigen present? - Correct answer 85% of the population
  5. The 4 blood types - Correct answer A, B, AB, O
  6. Which blood type has neither the Anti-A nor the Anti-B plasma antibodies - Correct answer AB
  7. This section of the lab uses serum to analyze the presence of antibodies to bacteria, fungi, viruses, parasites, and antibodies against the body's own substances? - Correct answer Serology (Immunology) Section
  8. Mycology - Correct answer Study of fungi
  9. The physical examination of urine consists of - Correct answer Color, Clarity, Specific gravity
  10. A low power microscope has a magnifying power of - Correct answer 100X
  11. Oil immersion objectives on the microscope reach a maximal magnification of - Correct answer 1000X
  12. This objective of the microscope is used for observing bacteria, WBC differential count and RBC morphology - Correct answer Oil immersion
  1. Eyepiece of the microscope - Correct answer Ocular lens
  2. Focal length is? - Correct answer The distance of the object to be examined to the center of the lens
  3. Meter to inches - Correct answer 39.
  4. High power objective on a microscope magnification - Correct answer 400X
  5. 1000 meter are equal to - Correct answer 1km
  6. 1mm to inches - Correct answer 0.
  7. 0.3 meter of tubing is how many inches - Correct answer 12 inches
  8. 1kg is how many pounds - Correct answer 2.2 pounds
  9. Abbreviation of microliter - Correct answer ul
  10. Abbreviation for decimeter - Correct answer dm
  11. Gram stain positive stains - Correct answer Deep violet (Violet to black)
  12. Gram stain negative stains which color - Correct answer Light to dark red
  13. Bacteria that take up and retain the crystal violet and resist alcohol discoloration - Correct answer Gram positive bacteria, appear blue to black
  14. Bacteria that are decolorized completely by ethanol and take safrin counterstain - Correct answer Gram negative bacteria, appear red
  1. Urine Specific Gravity - Correct answer The ratio of weight of a given volume of urine to the weight of the same volume of distilled water at a constant temperature
  2. Glycosuria - Correct answer Presence of glucose in the urine
  3. Normal pH of freshly voided urine - Correct answer 4.5- 8.0 within this range the pH of the most healthy patients is around 6.
  4. Symptoms of patients with diabetes mellitus - Correct answer Glycosuria, polyuria, and thirst
  5. pH of 0-7.0 - Correct answer Acidic
  6. pH of 7-14 in urine - Correct answer Alkaline
  7. Distilled water has a pH of? - Correct answer 7.0 pH or neutral
  8. A urine pH of what is considered neutral? - Correct answer 7.0 pH
  9. A positive urine nitrate test is an indication for - Correct answer A significant number of bacteria are present
  10. What color is a test positive for in nitrate in urine - Correct answer Pink
  11. The copper reaction test us used for what? - Correct answer Screening for glucose in urine
  12. The presence of leukocytes in urine is an indicator for what? - Correct answer Bacteriuria or UTI
  13. Urine screening for UCG or hCG - Correct answer Pregnancy test
  1. HIPAA is for? - Correct answer Patient confidentiality
  2. The four elements of negligence are - Correct answer 1. Duty of care, 2.Derelict: Breach of duty, 3.Direct cause, 4.Damage
  3. Tort - Correct answer Wrongful act that results in injury to one person or another
  4. Examples of A Tort - Correct answer Battery, invasion of privacy, and defamation of character
  5. Defamation of character by written statement is considered - Correct answer Libel
  6. Consists of injury to another person's reputation, name, or character through spoken (Slander) or written (Libel) - Correct answer Defamation of character
  7. Unprivileged touching - Correct answer Battery
  8. The release of medical records without the patient's knowledge or permission - Correct answer Invasion of privacy
  9. Good Samaritan Law - Correct answer Rendering first aid within the scope of knowledge by a healthcare worker without the fear of being sued for negligence
  10. Hypothalamus - Correct answer Regulates and maintains body temperature
  11. Functions necessary for life - Correct answer Heart function, blood pressure, respiration, and temperature
  12. Rectal temperature range in Celsius - Correct answer 37.0-38.1 C
  1. Taking BP hearing two consecutive beats gives which reading - Correct answer Systolic
  2. The disappearance point whilst taking BP is usually what? - Correct answer A few mm Hg below the muffling point which marks the diastolic pressure
  3. How long should the arm rest between re-inflating the cuff during BP taking - Correct answer 1-2 minutes
  4. Repetitive inflation of BP cuff can result in - Correct answer Venous congestion
  5. Venous caused by repetitive inflation of BP can lead to - Correct answer Artificially low systolic and high diastolic reading
  6. Anthropometric measurements - Correct answer BMI and growth development in infants, children, and adults
  7. The four principals of physical examination - Correct answer Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
  8. The position used for most physical examinations, Pt. lays on back legs extended - Correct answer Horizontal recumbent position
  9. Patient laying on back with knees flexed, soles of feet on bed - Correct answer Dorsal recumbent
  10. This position is used to promote drainage or ease breathing - Correct answer Fowler's
  11. Prone position is used for - Correct answer Used to examine back and spine
  12. Patient lays on his/her stomach with head turned to one side for comfort - Correct answer Prone position
  1. Patient is on left side with the right knee flexed against abdomen - Correct answer Sim's Position
  2. Patients with leg injuries or arthritis can not assume this position - Correct answer Sim's
  3. This position is usually used for rectal and vaginal examination - Correct answer Knee Chest position is used for?
  4. Never leave the patient alone in the room when he/she is in this position - Correct answer Knee Chest
  5. This position is used for surgical procedures for the pelvis and abdomen. Also used for shock treatment - Correct answer Trendelenburg
  6. If skin or eyes come in contact with chemicals wash area with water for? - Correct answer 5 minutes
  7. MSDS - Correct answer Material Safety Data Sheet
  8. Hyperkalemia - Correct answer Higher than normal levels potassium in the blood
  9. What are the symptoms of shock - Correct answer Pale cold clammy skin, blank stare, rapid weak pulse, and fast shallow breathing
  10. Syncope - Correct answer Sudden loss of conciseness
  11. First aid for shock - Correct answer Open airway, call assistance, position head lower, control bleeding if any, keep warm
  12. Cycle of infection - Correct answer Agent > Portal exit
> Mode o. t. > Portal entry  Susceptible Host 
  1. What defines standard precautions - Correct answer All patients are presumed to be infected with blood borne pathogens
  2. This is an infection control method designed to prevent direct contact with blood or other body fluids - Correct answer Standard precautions
  3. This replaces universal precautions and body substance isolation - Correct answer Standard precautions
  4. Don gloves, face shields if in danger of splashing, dispose all needles without recapping into sharps container - Correct answer Standard precautions
  5. This is the second tier of precautions when patient is contagious - Correct answer Transmission based precautions
  6. Define contact precautions - Correct answer Reducing the risk of transmission of microorganisms direct or indirect
  7. Special air handling and ventilation are required to prevent - Correct answer Airborne diseases under airborne precautions
  8. This is an emerging and important problem in the health care field - Correct answer Latex sensitivity
  9. Every health care worker with a latex allergy should wear this - Correct answer Medical alert bracelet
  10. po - Correct answer By mouth
  11. pr - Correct answer By way of rectum/suppository
  12. sl - Correct answer Sublingual
  13. IM - Correct answer Intramuscular
  1. SQ - Correct answer Subcutaneous
  2. qd - Correct answer Every day
  3. bid - Correct answer Twice a day
  4. tid - Correct answer Three times a day
  5. qid - Correct answer Four times a day
  6. pc - Correct answer After a meal
  7. qhs - Correct answer Each night or at bedtime
  8. prn - Correct answer As necessary or when needed
  9. sig - Correct answer From the latin, let it be labled
  10. The innermost layer of the heart - Correct answer Endocardium
  11. The sac containing the heart - Correct answer Pericardium
  12. A muscular hollow organ located in the thoracic cavity between lungs - Correct answer Epicardium
  13. Serous fluid - Correct answer Prevents friction as the heart beats
  14. Receives deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the body - Correct answer Right atrium
  15. Receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium which it pumps to the lungs through the pulmonary artery - Correct answer Right ventricle
  1. The PNS or parasympathetic nervous system affects - Correct answer Atria only by decreasing heart rate, conduction and irritability
  2. Automaticity - Correct answer Ability of the cardiac cells to initiate own electrical impulses without outside stimulation
  3. Excitability or irritability - Correct answer Ability of cardiac cells to respond to external stimulus
  4. Contractibility - Correct answer Ability of cardiac cells to shorten (Muscles contraction) in response to electrical stimulus
  5. Digitalis, dopamine, epinephrine - Correct answer Drugs that increase the contractility of the heart
  6. Depolarization flows from - Correct answer Endocardium to the myocardium to the epicardium
  7. Results in myocardial relaxation - Correct answer Repolarization
  8. Found in the upper posterior portion of the right atrial wall below the vena cava opening - Correct answer SA node
  9. Consists of anterior, middle and posterior divisions that distribute electrical impulses by SA to Av node - Correct answer Internodal pathway
  10. Located at the posterior septal wall of the right atrium just above the tricuspid valve - Correct answer AV node
  11. Found at the superior portion of the inter ventricular septum, pathway that leads out of the SA node - Correct answer Bundle of HIS
  1. Located within the ventricular endocardium, consists of small conduction fibers - Correct answer Purkinjie fibers
  2. This fires at 20-40 beats per minute - Correct answer Purkinjie fibers
  3. This has a 1/10th of a delay to allow blood to flow from atria to ventricles - Correct answer AV node
  4. Has an intrinsic firing rate of 40-60bpm - Correct answer Bundle of HIS
  5. Normal firing rate of 60-100bpm and is the primary pacemaker of the heart - Correct answer SA node
  6. Acts a pacemaker when higher level pacemakers fail - Correct answer Purkinjie fibers
  7. Limb leads consist of - Correct answer 3 bipolar and 3 augmented leads
  8. These record electrical potentials in the frontal place - Correct answer The limb leads
  9. T wave - Correct answer Deflection produced by ventricular repolarization
  10. U wave - Correct answer Deflection seen following by ventricular repolarization
  11. What is the PR interval and how long? - Correct answer P wave plus a segment, 0.12-0-2 sec
  12. QRS interval, how long? - Correct answer No more than 1 sec in limb leads and 0.11 in precordial leads
  13. PR segment - Correct answer Line from the end of the P wave to the onset of the QRS complex