Hematology Practice Test (Part 3) | Cheat Sheet Hematology

Practice Tests: Hematology

Disclaimer: The following practice questions were originally made by the owner and

are based solely on the notes provided that are lifted from references of the

subject. Please use at your own risk.

TOPICS: Hemostasis, Disorders of Primary

Hemostasis, Coagulation and

Firbinolysis, Coagulation Thrombotic

Disorders, and Laboratory Tests

1. In the given terms, which among them

is paired CORRECTLY?

A. Menorrhagia: It refers to

excessive bleeding occurring in

the GUT which can be experienced

by both genders.

B. Hematemesis: It refers to fecal

elimination and contamination of

blood.

C. Ecchymoses: It refers to a

purpura that does not run deep

into the tissues.

D. Purpura: It refers to pinpoint

hemorrhagic spots on the skin

caused by trauma.

2. Capillary Fragility Test involves the

application of increased pressure to

determine the fragility of

capillaries. If upon counting,

multiple petechiae over the whole arm

and the back of hand is observed, what

will be the grade of this test result?

A. +1

B. +2

C. +3

D. +4

3. Compute for the Estimated platelet

Count using the following information

given below:

Counts per field in 10 OIF:

12,14,13,15,17,11,10,13,12,15

The PEF is: 17

A. 215

B. 218

C. 221

D. 223

4. Based on the answer that you have

computed in number 3, what is the

interpretation of the result?

A. The EPC is adequate

B. The EPC is increased

C. The EPC is decreased

D. The EPC cannot be determined

because there is insufficient

information

5. Rees-Ecker diluting fluid is used for

platelet count. Determine which

components are matched CORRECTLY with

their function.

I. Sodium Citrate: Anticoagulant

II. Briliant Cresyl Blue: A

supravital stain that enhances

visualization on the remnants

of RNA in the cell.

III. Formalin: Prevents premature

hemolysis of platelets

IV. Ammonium Oxalate: Prevents

platelet aggregation

A. I and III

B. I and IV

C. II and III

D. II and IV

6. All of these sunstances inhibit

megakaryocyte production, EXCEPT:

A. Platelet Factor 4

B. IL-8

C. Beta-thromboglobulin

D. IL-11

7. Thromboxane A2 is involved in platelet

aggregation and secretion. It is

inhibited reversibly by NSAIDs which

acetylates cyclooxgenase.

A. Only the FIRST statement is

correct

B. Only the SECOND statement is

correct

C. Both statements are CORRECT

D. Both statements are INCORRECT

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Disclaimer: The following practice questions were originally made by the owner and are based solely on the notes provided that are lifted from references of the

TOPICS: Hemostasis, Disorders of Primary Hemostasis, Coagulation and Firbinolysis, Coagulation Thrombotic Disorders, and Laboratory Tests

1. In the given terms, which among them is paired CORRECTLY? A. Menorrhagia: It refers to excessive bleeding occurring in the GUT which can be experienced by both genders. B. Hematemesis: It refers to fecal elimination and contamination of blood. C. Ecchymoses: It refers to a purpura that does not run deep into the tissues. D. Purpura: It refers to pinpoint hemorrhagic spots on the skin caused by trauma. 2. Capillary Fragility Test involves the application of increased pressure to determine the fragility of capillaries. If upon counting, multiple petechiae over the whole arm and the back of hand is observed, what will be the grade of this test result? A. + B. + C. + D. + 3. Compute for the Estimated platelet Count using the following information given below: Counts per field in 10 OIF: 12 ,14,13,15,17,11,10,13,12, The PEF is: 17 A. 215 B. 218 C. 221 D. 223 4. Based on the answer that you have computed in number 3, what is the interpretation of the result? A. The EPC is adequate B. The EPC is increased C. The EPC is decreased D. The EPC cannot be determined because there is insufficient information 5. Rees-Ecker diluting fluid is used for platelet count. Determine which components are matched CORRECTLY with their function. I. Sodium Citrate: Anticoagulant II. Briliant Cresyl Blue: A supravital stain that enhances visualization on the remnants of RNA in the cell. III. Formalin: Prevents premature hemolysis of platelets IV. Ammonium Oxalate: Prevents platelet aggregation A. I and III B. I and IV C. II and III D. II and IV 6. All of these sunstances inhibit megakaryocyte production, EXCEPT: A. Platelet Factor 4 B. IL- 8 C. Beta-thromboglobulin D. IL- 11 7. Thromboxane A2 is involved in platelet aggregation and secretion. It is inhibited reversibly by NSAIDs which acetylates cyclooxgenase. A. Only the FIRST statement is correct B. Only the SECOND statement is correct C. Both statements are CORRECT D. Both statements are INCORRECT

Disclaimer: The following practice questions were originally made by the owner and are based solely on the notes provided that are lifted from references of the

8. In what platelet structure are the alpha and dense granules located? A. Glycocalyx Area B. Submembrane Area C. Sol-Gel Zone D. Organelles Zone 9. What type/s of collagen are produced by the smooth muscles? I. Type I II. Type II III. Type III IV. Type IV A. I and III B. I and IV C. II and III D. II and IV 10. 12 - HETE is a metabolite of arachidonic acid that is important for platelet adhesion. If, by any chance, it is inhibited and platelet adhesion is impaired, aggregation of platelets will not be executed. A. Only the FIRST statement is correct B. Only the SECOND statement is correct C. Both statements are CORRECT D. Both statements are INCORRECT 11. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome is brought about by defect/s in which of the following? I. The peptidase enzyme that converts proccollagen to collagen II. Crosslinking of mature collagen III. Absence in the production of procollagen IV. Vasculature of the blood vessels A. I only B. I and II only C. I, II, and III only D. All of the choices are correct 12. Which among the following is a hereditary connective tissue defect? A. Scurvy B. Cushing Disease C. Pseudoxanthoma Elasticum D. Kasaback-Merritt Syndrome For numbers 13 - 17. Match the following disorders with their respective findings or description. A. It presents Dohle Bodies within WNCs with characteristic giant platelets. B. It presents severe thrombocytopenia with excessively small platelets C. It presents the production of micromegakaryocytes in the bone marrow and fusion of alpha granules in platelets circulating in the peripheral blood D. It presents enhanced susceptibility of cells to complement binding and lysis E. It presents a disease homologous to HDFN, where maternal antibodies attack platelets leading to thrombocytopenia. **13. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
Neonatal Alloimmune Thrombocytopenic Purpura
Paris-Trousseau Syndrome
May-Hegglin Anomaly
Miscellaneous Nonimmune Platelet Destruction may be caused by the following, EXCEPT:** A. Dilutional loss due to massive transfusion B. Ristocetin or heparin administration

Disclaimer: The following practice questions were originally made by the owner and are based solely on the notes provided that are lifted from references of the

30. Which among the following factors are absent in an aged plasma sample? A. None of the factors are absent B. All factors under the fibrinogen group are absent C. Only labile factors are absent D. Only Factor II is absent 31. The venom of Bothox atrox is used in what test? A. Bethesda Titer Assay B. Stypven Time C. Reptilase Time D. Protamine Sulfate Test 32. What factor is deficient when PT and APTT are abnormal? However, upon the addition of fresh and adsorbed plasma, the deficiency was corrected. A. Factor II B. Factor VIII C. Factor VII D. Factor V 33. Which among the following is not a characteristic of the plasma recalcification time test? A. The blood sample used for the test may come from an EDTA, a heparinized, or a citrated tube. B. Equal amounts of plasma and calcium chloride reagent are added together C. In the event that plasma is not available, serum sample may also be used D. The calcium chloride added will initiate the clotting of the plasma. 34. In the Stypven time test, what will be the result if there is a circulating lupus anticoagulant? A. Normal B. Shortened/Decreased C. Prolonged/Increased D. The test is not applicable for detecting lupus anticoagulant 35. A deficiency in Vitamin K will impair the production of what coagulation group? A. Prothrombin B. Labile C. Fibrinogen D. Contact 36. This causes a transient Protein C resistance to neonates due to low endogenous protein C levels. A. Factor V Leiden Mutation B. Prothrombin G20210A Mutation C. Antiphospholipid Syndrome D. Antithrombin Deficiency 37. In the Prothrombin G20210A Mutation, what nucleotide substitutes arginine in the position 20210? A. Valine B. Methionine C. Glutamine D. Serotonin 38. A prolonged PT and APTT indicates a problem in what pathway? A. Intrinsic B. Extrinsic C. Common D. All of the pathway 39. Coagulation factors that is/are inhibited by antithrombin is/are the following: I. XIII II. XII III. XI IV. I A. I and II B. II and III C. III and IV D. I and IV

Disclaimer: The following practice questions were originally made by the owner and are based solely on the notes provided that are lifted from references of the

40. Antiphospholipid syndrome is associated with which of the following conditions? I. SLE II. Phenytoin Administration III. Heparin Administration IV. Lupus Anticoagulant Syndrome A. I, II, and III B. I, II, and IV C. I, III, and IV D. II, III, and IV 41. The following tests are used to determine products of fibrinolysis, EXCEPT: A. Euglobulin Lysis Time Test B. Protamine Sulfate Dilution Test C. Ethanol Gelation Test D. Latex D-dimer Assay 42. Von Willebrand’s Disease is an acquired coagulopathy that presents bleeding diathesis. It causes a decreased level of Factor VIII:C. A. Only the FIRST statement is correct B. Only the SECOND statement is correct C. Both statements are CORRECT D. Both statements are INCORRECT 43. All of the following does not present a bleeding diathesis except a deficiency in what factor? A. XIII B. XV C. XII D. XI

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