HOME INSPECTOR EXAM STUDY QUESTIONS, Exams of Advanced Education

HOME INSPECTOR EXAM STUDY QUESTIONS

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HOME INSPECTOR EXAM STUDY
QUESTIONS
The most effective method of ventilating the attic is the combination ______ vent and
_______ vents.
ridge and soffit
Overhead cables coming from a utility pole to the weather head (mast) of a house are
called the ___?
1. service entrance
2. transformer
3. service lateral
4. service drop
service drop
- if from under ground it is the service lateral
What composes the structure of the home?
skeleton including foundation and footings, the roof and framework.
Ø What part of the home's structure is least likely to be visible to the home inspector?
Footings
T/F: Generally speaking, ductwork, piping, electrical conduit etc. should not be laying on
the ground.
True
What is the horizontal piece of wood on top of concrete that studs are joined to?
sill plate
Which action is required by most standards of practice?
1. required to enter underfloor crawl spaces and attic spaces if the property has them
2. required to probe structural components where deterioration is suspected
3. required to report signs of repair work on the property
4. required to report cracks in the foundation only if they are active cracks
required to probe structural components where deterioration is suspected
Which of the following is not part of the structural inspection?
1. foundation walls
2. girders and floor joists
3. fascia boards
4. roof framing members
fascia boards
Forces that effect a home's structure:
- Gravity and weight
- Movement of soil
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HOME INSPECTOR EXAM STUDY

QUESTIONS

The most effective method of ventilating the attic is the combination ______ vent and _______ vents. ridge and soffit Overhead cables coming from a utility pole to the weather head (mast) of a house are called the ___?

  1. service entrance
  2. transformer
  3. service lateral
  4. service drop service drop
  • if from under ground it is the service lateral What composes the structure of the home? skeleton including foundation and footings, the roof and framework. Ø What part of the home's structure is least likely to be visible to the home inspector? Footings T/F: Generally speaking, ductwork, piping, electrical conduit etc. should not be laying on the ground. True What is the horizontal piece of wood on top of concrete that studs are joined to? sill plate Which action is required by most standards of practice?
  1. required to enter underfloor crawl spaces and attic spaces if the property has them
  2. required to probe structural components where deterioration is suspected
  3. required to report signs of repair work on the property
  4. required to report cracks in the foundation only if they are active cracks required to probe structural components where deterioration is suspected Which of the following is not part of the structural inspection?
  5. foundation walls
  6. girders and floor joists
  7. fascia boards
  8. roof framing members fascia boards Forces that effect a home's structure:
  • Gravity and weight
  • Movement of soil
  • Wind and water
  • Internal stresses Which force would exert the least amount of stress on a foundation?
  1. Gravity
  2. Water in the soil
  3. Wind
  4. Soil pressure Wind Name the 6 foundation types
  • Concrete masonry unit
  • Poured concrete
  • Stone masonry
  • Brick
  • Wood foundation
  • Piles, piers, and grade beams If you note an active ¼" step crack with no apparent movement, you should _______?
  1. Recommend that you come back to repair the crack
  2. Suggest the customer monitor the crack
  3. Recommend a structural engineer be consulted to assess the crack
  4. All of the answers shown Recommend a structural engineer be consulted to assess the crack For which condition should the customer be advised to monitor the foundation wall?
  5. Step cracks indicating foundation settlement
  6. Excessive bowing of the wall with no cracks
  7. All active cracks
  8. Cracks less than ¼" wide showing little or no movement Cracks less than ¼" wide showing little or no movement General guidelines to follow when looking at foundation cracks:
  • Surface cracks that don't pierce the wall and show no displacement in any direction are not typically structural in nature
  • Cracks less than ¼" wide, with or without displacement in any direction, are not likely signs of serious failure unless thy are active
  • Cracks over 3/8" wide should be examined carefully as an indication of a potentially serious problem
  • Cracks that are still active should be noted as major defects
  • Active cracks have sharp edges and will break a new paint surface or mortar repair
  • They indicate a failure in progress and a situation that can grow worse
  • Probe the repair to see if it is mortar or just caulking, which would be a sign of a homeowner having make a repair or possibly hiding the crack
  • Don't come to a conclusion based on a single crack
  • Investigate further
  • A crack in one area of the foundation often has a corresponding crack in another area When to give the foundation an okay
  1. End notches ________ of depth
  2. with ____" to ____" of overhang.
  3. Holes one-third of depth and not within _____" of edges
  4. ______ not cut or any parts removed.
  5. One-sixth
  6. one-third
  7. one-quarter
  8. 3″ to 4″
  9. 2"
  10. Trusses What may happen to the floor as a result of a load-bearing wall being offset from the supporting beam below it?
  11. a ridge may appear above the beam
  12. the joists supporting the wall may be deflected
  13. a low spot may appear in the floor along the wall
  14. all of the answers shown all of the answers shown What may be an exterior sign of rafters installed at too wide a span?
  15. a waviness in the roof plane
  16. a sagging ridge line
  17. a break in the joint between the roof and house
  18. truss uplift a waviness in the roof plane Rafter spread is ________?
  19. when rafters are cracked
  20. a bowing upward of the bottom chord
  21. where cuts are made in rafters
  22. where the roof load pushes the rafters outward where the roof load pushes the rafters outward An asphalt shingle roof should have a ______ _____ or metal flashing at the lower edge of the roof. drip edge Asphalt shingles cam be used with a slope of ______or higher 4/
  • Low slope asphalt shingles can be used on 4/12 to 2/12 slope. Same material, different installation Which types of shingles can be overlaid? wood shingles wood shakes asphalt shingles others

Wood and asphalt shingles only Which roof covering is most likely to last the longest?

  1. asbestos cement shingles
  2. slate shingles
  3. roll roofing
  4. metal roofing slate shingles What type of ridge cover is commonly used with asphalt shingles?
  5. metal flashings
  6. asphalt shingles
  7. drip edge flashing
  8. roll roofing asphalt shingles Torn or split valley flashings may indicate that _______
  9. they are too short
  10. they need to be crimped at the center line
  11. they have been repaired
  12. they are too tightly nailed they are too tightly nailed What should the home inspector do upon encountering tarred valleys?
  13. probe through the tar to see what's underneath
  14. report tarred valleys as closed valleys
  15. report tarred valleys as not visible and tar is an improper repair
  16. walk on the tar to see if it's tight report tarred valleys as not visible and tar is an improper repair What is counter flashing?
  17. a special ridge cover used with tile roofs
  18. the kind of flashing used at the rake edge of the roof
  19. a bottom layer of flashing covered by step flashing
  20. a second (upper) layer of flashing that covers a bottom layer of flashing a second (upper) layer of flashing that covers a bottom layer of flashing What is an unlined chimney?
  21. a chimney chase that serves as the flue
  22. a chimney without a chimney chase
  23. a chimney chase without a chimney cap
  24. a chimney chase with multiple separate flues a chimney chase that serves as the flue When you find an unlined chimney, check the condition of the ______ in the attic. chase

sediment in the tank If a faucet drips when turned off, it's most likely caused by ______?

  1. water hammer
  2. a deteriorated handle
  3. a faulty valve or cartridge
  4. the faucet not secured to the fixture a faulty valve or cartridge what is a sign that an old lead or tin shower pan may be present?
  5. a ceramic-tiled shower floor, typically with 1" tiles
  6. the presence of a drum trap
  7. wood rot at the shower door
  8. ceramic-tiled shower walls, typically with 4" tiles a ceramic-tiled shower floor, typically with 1" tiles toilets are generally constructed from ____?
  9. copper with enamel covering
  10. gel-coated fiberglass
  11. molded ceramic tile
  12. vitreous china vitreous china Over the years, what material was commonly used for gas piping in the house?
  13. PEX
  14. copper
  15. black iron
  16. galvanized steel black iron What is required when you find CSST gas piping in a home?
  17. antioxidant past on the connections
  18. piping must be properly bonded where it enters the building
  19. CSST is no longer allowed in new construction
  20. piping not allowed to run through framing piping must be properly bonded where it enters the building CSST: Corrugated Stainless Steel Tubing
  • colors
  • if gas is in different color requirements
  • bonding requirements
  • usually black or yellow. Black and yellow tubing are usually gas
  • anything other than yellow or black CSST, or black iron used for gas must be marked as gas piping
  • CSST must be bonded where it enters the house What should the home inspector do when a faint odor of gas is detected at a standing pilot type burner on the kitchen stove?
  1. explain to a customer that a faint gas smell at a pilot light is common and isn't a gas leak
  2. record the gas odor as a safety hazard
  3. have everyone leave the house and call the gas company for help
  4. recommend that the gas company be called to investigate the odor have everyone leave the house and call the gas company for help Which of the following actions is not a requirement regarding branch circuit wiring?
  5. required to observe compatibility of branch circuit wiring and its fuses or breakers
  6. required to dismantle connections at junction boxes
  7. required to report solid conductor aluminum branch circuit wiring
  8. required to observe branch circuit conductors required to dismantle connections at junction boxes Which of the following does not have to be inspected during the electrical inspection?
  9. exterior fixtures and receptacles
  10. branch circuit wiring
  11. low voltage systems
  12. polarity and grounding of receptacles low voltage systems The electrical pressure that pushes through the wires is known as the ____
  13. Amperage
  14. Voltage
  15. Ohm
  16. resistance Voltage T/F: no parts of Back-up Generators are part of the SOP? False: the subpanel is Resistance to the flow of electricity is measured in ____?
  17. Amperage
  18. Voltage
  19. Ohms
  20. Watts Ohms What is the measure for electromotive force:
  21. Amps
  22. Volts
  23. Ohms
  24. Watts Volts Fuse/CB- Copper Wired - Aluminum Wire 100 - _______ - _______ 110 - _______ - _______

BX cable is also called _____.

  1. knob-and-tube wiring
  2. rigid conduit
  3. metal armored cable
  4. non-metallic sheathed cable metal armored cable What condition causes aluminum branch circuit wiring to be unsafe?
  5. overheating at poor connections
  6. use of COPALUM connectors
  7. absence of ground wires
  8. wire gauges too small for amperage overheating at poor connections The NEC requires at least one ____ ____ ____ ____ _____ in all rooms; hallways; stairways; utility rooms; basements, crawl spaces, and attics that are used for storage or that house mechanical equipment; and garages and at outdoor entrances. wall-switch-controlled lighting fixture
  9. Stairways with ____ or more risers should be switched at both the bottom and top and require three-way switches.
  10. Light switches should be about __" off the floor
  11. six
  12. 48" Which of the following is a an unsafe practice
  13. a bathroom wall switch 6' from the tub
  14. a bathroom receptacle 12" above electric baseboard heat
  15. a shower with a recessed lighting fixture
  16. a bathroom receptacle at the sink with a GFCI a bathroom receptacle 12" above electric baseboard heat According to the NEC, GFCI need NOT be installed in which of the following places?
  17. unfinished basements
  18. bathroom
  19. in crawl spaces at or below grade
  20. ice-melt cables on the roof ice-melt cables on the roof When testing two-slot receptacles with the neon bulb tester, which of the following would show reversed polarity?
  21. neutral slot and cover plate screw tested, bulb lights
  22. neutral and hot slots tested, bulb doesn't light
  1. hot and neutral slots tested, bulb lights
  2. hot slot and cover plate screw tested, bulb lights neutral slot and cover plate screw tested, bulb lights Define the following types of heat transfer:
  3. Conduction
  4. Convection
  5. Radiation
  6. Conduction by physical contact o touch a hot stove o radiant floor heat in floor tiles when you stand on it
  7. Convection by warming air, water, or steam and moving it to a cooler location o Forced-air systems pushing warm air through registers, warming air in rooms, walls, furniture...and peiple
  8. Radiation by radiating energy o Standing next to the stove but not touching it Forced warm-air heating systems are an example of what type of heat transfer?
  9. Radiation
  10. Conduction
  11. Convection Solar Convection One cubic foot of gas is approximately equal to ______ BTU
  12. 500
  13. 1000
  14. 1200
  15. 1500 1000 The gas manifold in a gas-fired heating system delivers gas _________
  16. from the drip leg to the gas valve
  17. from the pilot control valve to the pilot
  18. from the gas valve to the burners
  19. from the meter to the turn-off valve above the heating unit from the gas valve to the burners What is a thermocouple?
  20. a glow coil or electric spark that is energized by the thermostat to ignite the gas
  21. a device that senses whether the pilot is lighted and controls the flow of gas to the burners
  22. a combination control containing the gas valve and pilot valve
  23. an automatic valve that starts and stops the flow of gas to the burners . a device that senses whether the pilot is lighted and controls the flow of gas to the burners
  1. at the top of the oil tank
  2. on the exterior fill pipe
  3. between the tank and the oil burner
  4. in the heating unit between the tank and the oil burner What is not a function of the primary control on an oil burner?
  5. to sense air temperatures in furnaces
  6. to energize the ignition transformer
  7. to prove ignition
  8. to start and stop the burner motor to sense air temperatures in furnaces Where is an oil burner's primary control located?
  9. at the burner motor
  10. on the exhaust stack or on the burner housing
  11. at the fuel storage tank
  12. in the blast tube or in the oil supply line on the exhaust stack or on the burner housing What type of oil burner has the greatest operating efficiency?
  13. a pot furnace
  14. a high-pressure gun-style burner
  15. a flame retention burner
  16. a low-pressure gun-style burner a flame retention burner What condition is indicated by bright orange flames in the firebox of an oil-fired system?
  17. there's too much combustion air
  18. the oil burner is properly adjusted
  19. the nozzle is probably clogged
  20. flames are starved for combustion air the oil burner is properly adjusted What function does a barometric damper play in an oil-fired heating unit?
  21. It mixes combustion air with oil in the burner blast tube.
  22. It allows CO to escape into the house.
  23. It regulates drafts to and from the heating unit.
  24. It supplies power to the ignition electrodes. It regulates drafts to and from the heating unit. AFUE Annual Fuel Utilization Efficiency What condition is indicated if a lighted match held at the barometric damper leans inward toward the smoke pipe?
  25. The damper is broken.
  1. Carbon monoxide is escaping into the home.
  2. Exhaust is moving up the chimney as it should be.
  3. A downdraft is occurring. Exhaust is moving up the chimney as it should be. Which of the following statements is true regarding the heat exchanger in an octopus furnace?
  4. It is located at the bottom of the unit and is likely to have been modified to accommodate a gas or oil burner.
  5. It is located above the combustion chamber and can be seen and inspected by opening the front access (upper) door.
  6. It is typically located at the return air duct at the base of the furnace, although it may be found on top of the furnace.
  7. It is located at the top of the unit and is often covered with plaster reinforced with asbestos. It is located above the combustion chamber and can be seen and inspected by opening the front access (upper) door. Besides the thermostat, the main controls on a forced-air furnace are ____.
  8. the gas valve and the fan control
  9. the temperature limit control and the fan control
  10. the temperature limit control and the pump control
  11. the pump control and the evaporator the temperature limit control and the fan control Which heating system is also called hydronic?
  12. forced hot water
  13. hydro-air system
  14. gravity hot water
  15. steam forced hot water The operating pressure in a forced hot water system for a typical two-story home should be ___.
  16. 30 psi
  17. 25 psi
  18. 12 psi
  19. 5 psi 12 psi What Cooling Components Do?
  20. Compressor
  21. Condenser
  22. Boiler
  23. Expansion
  24. Evaporator

Which is the most recent method of applying plaster to walls and ceilings?

  1. 3 layers over a wire mesh
  2. 1 or 2 layers over a gypsum board lath
  3. 3 layers over 1" by 4" lath
  4. 1 layer over plywood 1 or 2 layers over a gypsum board lath What causes plaster to become powdery?
  5. settlement of the foundation
  6. too much reworking upon installation
  7. being soaked with water
  8. detachment of the lath being soaked with water hat repair would not be acceptable with powdery plaster?
  9. cover the powdery plaster with drywall
  10. wet the plaster to re-harden it
  11. remove the powdery plaster and re-plaster the area
  12. cover the powdery plaster with a finish plywood wet the plaster to re-harden it T/F: you can confirm plaster detachment by tapping with your hand and hearing a dull thud or pushing and sensing movement? True, but be careful not to cause further damage How should a home inspector test a bulge in a plaster wall for detachment from the lath?
  13. side lighting it with a flashlight
  14. tapping on it with a screwdriver
  15. banging on it with the flashlight
  16. pushing on it gently with the hand pushing on it gently with the hand Cracks ___" or bigger in plaster facings are signs of structural problems ¼" Which type of crack in plaster facing is an indication of a plaster problem rather than a structural cause?
  17. cracks above doors and windows
  18. network of surface cracks
  19. angled wall cracks
  20. cracks around stairways network of surface cracks What sort of crack in drywall ceiling can be caused by truss uplift?
  21. an angled crack from corner to corner of the ceiling
  22. a crack running alongside a girder the length of the house
  1. a crack along the junction of the ceiling and the walls
  2. a network of cracks over the ceiling a crack along the junction of the ceiling and the walls What is drywall made of?
  3. gypsum covered with paper or fiberglass
  4. compressed paper
  5. wood chips and fibers
  6. kalsomine gypsum covered with paper or fiberglass A random and slight bulge in the drywall could be an indicator of ____.
  7. mold or mildew
  8. a popping nail
  9. the drywall turning to a powdery substance
  10. the detachment of the glue that holds the drywall seams together a popping nail What might be the cause of nail pop with a drywall facing?
  11. inadequate bracing in the framing
  12. expansion and contraction of the framing
  13. all of the answers shown
  14. shrinkage of the framing all of the answers shown How should subfloor be laid if you want to install finished floor parallel to joists? If laid diagonal to joists, then finished floor can be laid parallel or perpendicular to joists.
  • if subfloor is laid perpendicular to joists, finished floor is laid parallel to joists. what size plywood, OSB, or particle board sheets are used for subfloor? 5/8"-3/4" Parquet squares are made of _____
  1. softwood
  2. terrazzo
  3. vinyl
  4. hardwood hardwood Planks are boards that are more than __" wide 3" What is indicated if you walk over vinyl sheet flooring and hear snapping and crackling?
  5. open joints in the underlayment
  6. loose nails in the subfloor
  7. defective adhesive
  8. defective mortar defective adhesive
  1. exterior foundation wall insulation
  2. plaster-like covering on an old gravity warm air furnace bonnet plaster-like covering on an old gravity warm air furnace bonnet What R-value is recommended for floors of heated spaces?
  3. R-
  4. R-
  5. R-
  6. R- R- Which of the following statements is true?
  7. The vapor barrier in the ceiling under the attic should be on the ceiling side of the insulation.
  8. A cathedral/vaulted roof does not need to be insulated.
  9. A flat roof is always insulated.
  10. The vapor barrier in the floor over the crawl space should be on the crawl space side of the insulation. The vapor barrier in the ceiling under the attic should be on the ceiling side of the insulation. What is the minimum R-rating recommended for pipes and heating ducts?
  11. R-5, R-
  12. R-8, R-
  13. R-3, R-
  14. R-8, R- R-3, R- Insulating the Home:
  15. R-3: For plumbing piping in unheated areas
  16. R-8: For heating ducts in unheated areas
  17. R-13 to R-25: For exterior framed walls and
  18. R-19 for crawl space and basement walls, if crawl space or basement is heated
  19. R-21: For floors over unheated spaces and knee walls
  20. R-30: For roof slopes and ceilings below attics, generally for most southern states
  21. R-49: For ceilings below attics, generally for most northern and mountainous states
  22. R-
  23. R-
  24. R-13 to R-
  25. R-
  26. R-
  27. R-
  28. R- What is the true purpose of the ventilation process?
  29. to reduce the home's heat load
  1. to stop radon from entering the home
  2. to remove moist air from the attic/crawl space
  3. to reduce the home's heat loss to remove moist air from the attic/crawl space What method of attic ventilation is considered to be the most effective?
  4. a gable vent at each gable
  5. a ridge vent along the full length of the roof
  6. a combination of soffit and ridge vents
  7. soffit vents at each eave a combination of soffit and ridge vents Which of the following vents is normally controlled by a thermostat?
  8. power ventilator
  9. roof-top vent
  10. ridge vent
  11. turbine vent power ventilator Moisture/condensation in the attic most directly effects which of the following roof components?
  12. ridge vent
  13. soffit
  14. roof sheathing
  15. fascia roof sheathing Which of the following conditions would not be a sign of poor ventilation in an attic?
  16. rusted gusset plates on roof trusses
  17. cracked rafters
  18. delaminated sheathing
  19. frost on roofing nails cracked rafters What sort of cracking in the ceiling is indicative of truss uplift?
  20. a crack running alongside a girder the length of the house
  21. a crack along the junction of the ceiling and the walls
  22. a network of cracks over the ceiling
  23. an angled crack from corner to corner of the ceiling a crack along the junction of the ceiling and the walls Which of the following soils can support the least load-bearing pressure?
  24. Poorly graded sands
  25. Silt with high compressibility
  26. Poorly graded gravel
  27. Sedimentary rock