Algebra Homework 1 Solutions: Proving Identity Maps and Isomorphisms in Category Theory, Study notes of Abstract Algebra

Solutions to problem statements i.7 from algebra homework 1. Topics covered include verifying that hom((x, x0), (y, y0)) is a subset of hom(x, y) and a set, checking identity maps, and proving that if a morphism f has both a left inverse and a right inverse, then the inverse are equal and the morphism is invertible.

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Pre 2010

Uploaded on 07/29/2009

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Algebra (647), Homework 1, solutions.
1. I.7: 1.
hom((X, x0),(Y, y0))
is a subset of
hom(X, Y )
in the category of sets. So
in particular it is a set.
In addition, the identity is a perfectly good map of pointed sets since
1X(x0) = x0
.
We just really need to check if
f: (X, x0)(Y, y0)
and
g: (Y, y0)
(Z, z0)
is a map of pointed sets, then so is
gf
. But this is clear since
(gf)(x0) = g(f(x0)) = g(y0) = z0.
2. I.7: 2.
Suppose
g0
also satise
fg0= 1
and
g0f= 1
. We get
g=g1 = g(fg0) = (gf)g0= 1 g0=g0.
It is worth observing that we just proved something stronger than what was
required. Suppose
f
is a morphism with a
left inverse g
(meaning
gf= 1
)
and a right inverse
g0
(meaning
fg0= 1
). Then
g=g0
and is a proper
(two-sided) inverse.
3. I.7: 7.
Let
A
in
C
be an object whose underlying set has more than one element.
Let
X
be a set with more than one element. Let
x1, x2
be distinct ele-
ments of
X
. Pick two distinct elements of
a1, a2A
and let
j:XA
be
a set map so that
j(x1) = a1
and
j(x2) = a2
If
i:XF
is a free object on
X
, there is a unique map
f:FA
so
that
fi=j
. Since
j(x1)6=j(x2)
, it follows that
i(x1)6=i(x2)
.
So
i
sends distinct elements of
X
to distinct elements of
F
.
4. Give an example of a concrete category and a morphism f:ABin that
category that is an isomorphism on the underlying set, but not an isomor-
phism in the category.
Here is a very simple example. Take the category to be partially ordered
sets. Take a partially ordered set with two elements
X={a, b}
and the
only relation being
aa
and
bb
. This satises the axioms for a partial
order, though it isn't very interesting.
Now take
Y={x, y}
with
xy
(and of course
xx
,
yy
). Take
f:XY
so that
f(a) = x
and
f(b) = y
.
f
is a set bijection, and is a map
of partially ordered sets.
But
f1
, which exists as a map of
sets
, is not a map of partially ordered
sets. So
f
has no inverse in the category of P.O. sets.
1

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Algebra (647), Homework 1, solutions.

1. I.7: 1.

hom((X, x 0 ), (Y, y 0 )) is a subset of hom(X, Y ) in the category of sets. So in particular it is a set. In addition, the identity is a perfectly good map of pointed sets since (^1) X (x 0 ) = x 0. We just really need to check if f : (X, x 0 ) → (Y, y 0 ) and g : (Y, y 0 ) → (Z, z 0 ) is a map of pointed sets, then so is g ◦ f. But this is clear since (g ◦ f )(x 0 ) = g(f (x 0 )) = g(y 0 ) = z 0.

  1. I.7: 2. Suppose g′^ also satis e f ◦ g′^ = 1 and g′^ ◦ f = 1. We get

g = g ◦ 1 = g ◦ (f ◦ g′) = (g ◦ f ) ◦ g′^ = 1 ◦ g′^ = g′. It is worth observing that we just proved something stronger than what was required. Suppose f is a morphism with a left inverse g (meaning g ◦ f = 1) and a right inverse g′^ (meaning f ◦ g′^ = 1). Then g = g′^ and is a proper (two-sided) inverse.

  1. I.7: 7. Let A in C be an object whose underlying set has more than one element. Let X be a set with more than one element. Let x 1 , x 2 be distinct ele- ments of X. Pick two distinct elements of a 1 , a 2 ∈ A and let j : X → A be a set map so that j(x 1 ) = a 1 and j(x 2 ) = a 2 If i : X → F is a free object on X, there is a unique map f : F → A so that f ◦ i = j. Since j(x 1 ) 6 = j(x 2 ), it follows that i(x 1 ) 6 = i(x 2 ). So i sends distinct elements of X to distinct elements of F.
  2. Give an example of a concrete category and a morphism f : A → B in that category that is an isomorphism on the underlying set, but not an isomor- phism in the category. Here is a very simple example. Take the category to be partially ordered sets. Take a partially ordered set with two elements X = {a, b} and the only relation being a ≤ a and b ≤ b. This satis es the axioms for a partial order, though it isn't very interesting. Now take Y = {x, y} with x ≤ y (and of course x ≤ x, y ≤ y). Take f : X → Y so that f (a) = x and f (b) = y. f is a set bijection, and is a map of partially ordered sets. But f −^1 , which exists as a map of sets, is not a map of partially ordered sets. So f has no inverse in the category of P.O. sets.

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