Download [ITC] Information Technology Certifications Certification Review Guide and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!
Certification Review Guide
Question 1. Which component is responsible for executing instructions in a computer? A) RAM B) CPU C) GPU D) SSD Answer: B Explanation: The CPU (Central Processing Unit) fetches, decodes, and executes program instructions, making it the brain of the system. Question 2. Which type of RAM is most commonly used in modern laptops due to its low power consumption? A) DDR B) DDR C) DDR D) SDRAM Answer: C Explanation: DDR4 offers higher transfer rates and lower voltage requirements than DDR3, making it ideal for energy‑efficient laptops. Question 3. In a RAID 5 configuration, how many disks can fail without data loss? A) None B) One C) Two D) All but one Answer: B
Certification Review Guide
Explanation: RAID 5 uses distributed parity; it can tolerate a single disk failure while preserving all data. Question 4. Which connector supports the highest video bandwidth for a single cable? A) HDMI 2. B) DisplayPort 1. C) VGA D) DVI‑I Answer: B Explanation: DisplayPort 1.4 can deliver up to 32.4 Gbps, supporting 8K resolution at 60 Hz, exceeding HDMI 2.0’s limits. Question 5. A power supply unit is rated at 750 W with an 80 PLUS Gold efficiency. Approximately how much power is drawn from the wall when delivering 500 W to the system? A) 400 W B) 500 W C) 560 W D) 625 W Answer: C Explanation: 80 PLUS Gold guarantees ≥87 % efficiency at 500 W load, so input ≈ 500 W / 0.87 ≈ 575 W (closest answer C). Question 6. Which cooling method uses a liquid coolant circulated through a radiator to dissipate heat? A) Air cooling B) Passive cooling
Certification Review Guide
A) cmd.exe B) PowerShell C) regedit D) msconfig Answer: B Explanation: PowerShell combines a command‑line shell with a scripting language and .NET objects, enabling powerful automation. Question 10. Which Linux distribution is known for its rolling release model and use of the Pacman package manager? A) Ubuntu B) Fedora C) Arch Linux D) Debian Answer: C Explanation: Arch Linux follows a rolling release, continuously delivering updates, and uses Pacman for package management. Question 11. A Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on: A) Host operating system B) Hardware C) Virtual machine D) Cloud service Answer: B Explanation: Type 1 (bare‑metal) hypervisors, such as VMware ESXi, install directly on physical hardware, offering better performance and isolation.
Certification Review Guide
Question 12. Which virtualization technology isolates applications at the OS level rather than emulating hardware? A) Hyper‑V B) VMware Workstation C) Docker containers D) VirtualBox Answer: C Explanation: Docker containers share the host kernel and isolate processes, providing lightweight OS‑level virtualization. Question 13. When upgrading a Windows PC, an “in‑place upgrade” preserves: A) All installed applications and user data B) Only the OS files C) No data; it performs a clean install D) Only the user profile Answer: A Explanation: An in‑place upgrade updates the OS while retaining existing applications, settings, and user files. Question 14. Which boot method uses a network server to load an operating system image via PXE? A) USB boot B) CD/DVD boot C) Network boot D) BIOS boot
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C) Link‑Local D) Multicast Answer: C Explanation: Link‑Local addresses (fe80::/10) are automatically configured on each interface for local‑network communication. Question 18. Subnet mask 255.255.255.192 (/26) provides how many usable host addresses? A) 30 B) 62 C) 126 D) 254 Answer: A Explanation: /26 yields 64 IPs; subtract network and broadcast addresses → 62 usable hosts (actually 62; but answer choice A is 30—there is a mistake). Correct calculation: /26 = 64 total, 62 usable. Since 30 is wrong, we must adjust options. Let's correct: A) 30 B) 62 C) 126 D) 254 Answer: B Explanation: With a /26 mask, 2⁶ = 64 addresses; removing network and broadcast leaves 62 usable hosts.
Certification Review Guide
Question 19. Which Wi‑Fi standard operates primarily in the 6 GHz band and is known as Wi‑Fi 6E? A) 802.11ac B) 802.11ax C) 802.11ad D) 802.11n Answer: B Explanation: 802.11ax (Wi‑Fi 6) extended to 6 GHz is marketed as Wi‑Fi 6E, offering additional spectrum and reduced interference. Question 20. A device that translates private IP addresses to a public IP address for outbound traffic is called a: A) Router B) Switch C) NAT gateway D) Firewall Answer: C Explanation: Network Address Translation (NAT) modifies source addresses of outbound packets, allowing multiple private hosts to share a single public IP. Question 21. Which TCP port is commonly used for secure remote desktop connections? A) 22 B) 3389 C) 443 D) 21 Answer: B
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D) SMTPS (SMTP over TLS) Answer: D Explanation: SMTPS (or SMTP with STARTTLS) encrypts email traffic, protecting credentials and message content. Question 25. Which type of malware encrypts a victim’s files and demands payment for decryption? A) Trojan B) Worm C) Ransomware D) Spyware Answer: C Explanation: Ransomware blocks access to files by encrypting them and extorts victims for a decryption key. Question 26. Social engineering attacks that masquerade as legitimate communications to steal credentials are known as: A) DDoS B) Phishing C) SQL injection D) Man‑in‑the‑middle Answer: B Explanation: Phishing uses deceptive emails or messages to lure users into revealing sensitive information. Question 27. Multi‑Factor Authentication (MFA) typically combines which of the following factors?
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A) Something you know, something you have, something you are B) Username and password only C) IP address and MAC address D) Token and certificate only Answer: A Explanation: MFA strengthens security by requiring two or more independent credentials: knowledge, possession, and inherence. Question 28. The principle of least privilege dictates that users should be granted: A) Full administrative rights at all times B) Only the permissions required to perform their job C) No permissions until explicitly requested D) All network access by default Answer: B Explanation: Limiting privileges reduces attack surface and prevents accidental or malicious misuse of resources. Question 29. Which encryption algorithm is considered asymmetric and is commonly used for digital signatures? A) AES B) DES C) RSA D) Blowfish Answer: C Explanation: RSA uses a public‑private key pair; the private key can sign data, and the public key verifies the signature.
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Answer: C Explanation: Biometrics rely on inherent physical characteristics, classifying them as “something you are”. Question 33. Which of the following is a best practice for secure disposal of hard drives containing sensitive data? A) Delete files using the recycle bin B) Format the drive once C) Physically shred or degauss the drive D) Store the drive in a drawer Answer: C Explanation: Shredding or degaussing ensures data cannot be recovered, complying with data sanitization standards. Question 34. In cloud computing, which service model delivers a complete software solution that you access via a web browser? A) IaaS B) PaaS C) SaaS D) DaaS Answer: C Explanation: Software‑as‑a‑Service (SaaS) provides fully managed applications (e.g., Google Workspace) over the internet. Question 35. Which cloud deployment model is operated solely for a single organization’s exclusive use? A) Public cloud
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B) Private cloud C) Hybrid cloud D) Community cloud Answer: B Explanation: A private cloud is dedicated to one organization, offering greater control and security. Question 36. The “3‑ 2 ‑ 1 ” backup rule recommends: A) Three backups, two on‑site, one off‑site B) Three copies, two different media, one off‑site C) Three incremental backups, two full backups, one archive D) Three data centers, two redundant, one primary Answer: B Explanation: Maintain at least three total copies of data, store them on two different storage types, and keep one copy off‑site for disaster recovery. Question 37. Which backup method captures only the data that has changed since the last full backup? A) Full backup B) Incremental backup C) Differential backup D) Mirror backup Answer: B Explanation: Incremental backups record changes since the most recent backup (full or incremental), reducing storage and time.
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Explanation: Bending at the knees protects the spine by using leg muscles and maintaining a neutral back posture. Question 41. Which Windows feature allows you to roll back to a previous system state after a failed driver installation? A) System Restore B) Device Manager C) Disk Cleanup D) Windows Update Answer: A Explanation: System Restore creates restore points that can revert system files, drivers, and registry settings to a known good state. Question 42. In Linux, which runlevel corresponds to multi‑user mode with graphical interface on most distributions? A) 0 B) 1 C) 3 D) 5 Answer: D Explanation: Runlevel 5 starts the display manager, providing a graphical login environment (runlevel 3 is multi‑user, non‑graphical). Question 43. Which command in PowerShell retrieves information about all installed Windows updates? A) Get‑HotFix B) Get‑UpdateHistory
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C) Get‑EventLog D) Get‑Service Answer: A Explanation: Get-HotFix lists installed updates, patches, and hotfixes on the local or remote computer. Question 44. The DNS record type that maps a domain name to an IPv6 address is: A) A B) AAAA C) CNAME D) MX Answer: B Explanation: An AAAA (quad‑A) record stores the 128‑bit IPv6 address associated with a hostname. Question 45. Which of the following tools can be used to capture and analyze network packets? A) ipconfig B) ping C) Wireshark D) nslookup Answer: C Explanation: Wireshark provides deep packet inspection, allowing users to view protocol details and troubleshoot traffic issues. Question 46. A switch that can create multiple virtual LANs (VLANs) is known as a:
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Question 49. Which of the following is a characteristic of a “cold site” in disaster recovery planning? A) Fully equipped with hardware and data B) Minimal infrastructure, requires setup before use C) Real‑time data replication D) Operates as a hot standby Answer: B Explanation: A cold site provides space and power but no active equipment; organizations must install hardware and restore data after a disaster. Question 50. The OSI layer that encapsulates data into frames is: A) Physical B) Data Link C) Network D) Transport Answer: B Explanation: The Data Link layer adds MAC addresses and error‑checking to create frames for transmission over the physical medium. Question 51. Which Windows utility allows you to view and manage services and their startup types? A) msconfig B) services.msc C) taskmgr.exe D) regedit.exe Answer: B
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Explanation: services.msc opens the Services console, where administrators can start, stop, and configure service startup behavior. Question 52. In macOS, the command‑line tool used to display disk usage statistics is: A) df B) du C) diskutil D) lsblk Answer: A Explanation: df reports the amount of disk space used and available on mounted filesystems. Question 53. Which RAID level provides both striping and mirroring, offering high performance and redundancy? A) RAID 0 B) RAID 1 C) RAID 5 D) RAID 10 Answer: D Explanation: RAID 10 (1+0) combines mirroring and striping, delivering fault tolerance and improved read/write speeds. Question 54. A “dead‑bolt” in a firewall rule set typically refers to: A) An allow rule that overrides all deny rules B) A rule that blocks all traffic from a specific IP range C) A rule that logs traffic without affecting flow D) A rule that permits only ICMP traffic
