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Question 1. Which of the following best defines the primary purpose of software testing? A) To prove that the software is perfect B) To find defects and assess quality C) To design the user interface D) To write the code Answer: B Explanation: The main goal of testing is to uncover defects and provide information about the quality of the product; it does not guarantee perfection. Question 2. In the context of quality, what does “Quality Assurance (QA)” primarily focus on? A) Detecting bugs after code is written B) Preventing defects through process improvement C) Measuring performance of the final product D) Automating test execution Answer: B Explanation: QA is about establishing and improving processes to prevent defects, whereas QC is about detecting defects. Question 3. Which of the Seven Principles of Testing states that “absence of errors does not imply absence of defects”? A) Testing shows presence of defects B) Exhaustive testing is impossible C) Absence of errors fallacy D) Testing is context dependent
Answer: C Explanation: The “absence of errors fallacy” warns that a system may appear error‑free yet still contain hidden defects. Question 4. In the Waterfall model, at which stage is testing typically performed? A) After the design phase B) Simultaneously with coding C) During requirements gathering D) Throughout the entire lifecycle Answer: A Explanation: Waterfall follows a sequential flow; testing occurs after implementation is complete. Question 5. Which agile framework explicitly defines a “Definition of Done” that includes testing criteria? A) Scrum B) Kanban C) XP (Extreme Programming) D) RUP Answer: A Explanation: Scrum’s Definition of Done often contains test completion criteria to ensure potentially shippable increments. Question 6. “Shift‑Left” testing mainly aims to:
Answer: C Explanation: Test Implementation (or test development) is where test cases are turned into executable test scripts and data. Question 9. A Test Strategy primarily differs from a Test Plan in that a Strategy: A) Contains detailed schedules and resource allocation B) Defines the overall testing approach and objectives C) Lists individual test case steps D) Provides defect metrics after execution Answer: B Explanation: The Test Strategy is a high‑level document describing the testing approach, while the Test Plan is detailed and operational. Question 10. Which Kaizen concept emphasizes “small, incremental changes”? A) Kaikaku B) Kakushin C) Kaizen D) Kanban Answer: C Explanation: Kaizen is the philosophy of continuous, incremental improvement; Kaikaku denotes radical change, and Kakushin refers to innovation. Question 11. The PDCA cycle applied to testing would place “Check” in which phase? A) During test case creation
B) After test execution to evaluate results C) While planning test objectives D) When automating test scripts Answer: B Explanation: “Check” involves reviewing test outcomes to determine if objectives were met before acting on improvements. Question 12. In Lean terminology, “Mura” refers to: A) Overproduction of test cases B) Unevenness or variation in workflow C) Unnecessary waiting time D) Excessive workload on testers Answer: B Explanation: Mura means inconsistency or unevenness, which can cause inefficiencies in the testing process. Question 13. Which of the following is NOT considered a type of waste (Muda) in software testing? A) Defects that escape to production B) Re‑testing the same functionality repeatedly C) Automated regression suites that run nightly D) Waiting for test environments to be provisioned Answer: C
C) Designing test cases for boundary conditions D) Automating repetitive tasks Answer: B Explanation: By repeatedly asking “Why?” you drill down to the underlying cause of a problem. Question 17. Gemba in a testing organization means: A) Conducting tests in a simulated environment B) Observing the actual testing work where it happens C) Automating all manual test steps D) Documenting test results in a central repository Answer: B Explanation: Gemba (“go and see”) encourages managers to watch the real work to spot waste and improvement opportunities. Question 18. Equivalence Partitioning helps testers to: A) Test every possible input value B) Divide input data into classes that are treated similarly by the system C) Focus only on the most critical requirements D) Generate performance load patterns Answer: B Explanation: By grouping inputs that should behave alike, you reduce the number of test cases while maintaining coverage.
Question 19. Boundary Value Analysis is most effective when combined with: A) Decision table testing B) Equivalence Partitioning C) State transition testing D) Exploratory testing Answer: B Explanation: BVA complements EP by targeting the edges of each partition, ensuring boundary conditions are verified. Question 20. A Decision Table is best suited for testing: A) Simple arithmetic functions B) Complex business rules with multiple conditions and actions C) UI layout consistency D) Network latency Answer: B Explanation: Decision tables map combinations of conditions to actions, ideal for rule‑heavy logic. Question 21. State Transition Testing is essential when a system: A) Has a single static output for all inputs B) Behaves differently depending on its current state C) Performs only CRUD operations D) Is a pure calculation engine
A) Requires only one test per function B) Executes every possible execution path through the code C) Is limited to unit tests only D) Does not need source code access Answer: B Explanation: Path testing attempts to traverse all possible routes, providing the highest level of structural coverage. Question 25. Error Guessing relies on: A) Formal mathematical models B) Tester intuition and experience with common mistake patterns C) Random input generation D) Automated code analysis tools Answer: B Explanation: Testers use past experience to anticipate where defects are likely to exist. Question 26. In session‑based exploratory testing, a “charter” is: A) A formal test plan approved by management B) A brief mission statement defining the scope and objectives of a testing session C) A list of all test cases to be executed D) An automated script repository Answer: B
Explanation: The charter guides the tester’s focus during an exploratory session. Question 27. The primary benefit of static testing (reviews, inspections) is: A) Reducing the need for regression testing B) Detecting defects early before code execution C) Measuring system performance under load D) Validating user interface aesthetics Answer: B Explanation: Static techniques find defects in requirements, design, or code without executing the software. Question 28. Which metric is most directly associated with the effectiveness of defect prevention activities? A) Defect Density B) Defect Removal Efficiency (DRE) C) Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) D) Test Execution Time Answer: B Explanation: DRE measures the proportion of defects removed before release, reflecting prevention success. Question 29. Unit testing is primarily performed by: A) QA analysts in a separate test environment B) Developers using mock objects and stubs
Question 32. System testing differs from integration testing mainly because: A) It focuses on individual functions only B) It validates the complete, integrated system against requirements C) It is performed by developers only D) It does not require test environments Answer: B Explanation: System testing evaluates the fully integrated product against functional and non‑functional specs. Question 33. Alpha testing is typically conducted: A) In the production environment by end users B) In a controlled lab setting by internal staff or selected customers C) After the product has been released to the market D) By automated scripts only Answer: B Explanation: Alpha testing occurs early, in a controlled environment, often with internal users or a limited external group. Question 34. Which of the following best describes regression testing? A) Testing new functionality only B) Re‑executing previously passed tests to ensure existing features still work C) Verifying performance under peak load
D) Conducting security penetration tests Answer: B Explanation: Regression testing checks that recent changes have not broken existing behavior. Question 35. Smoke testing is primarily used to: A) Verify that the most critical functions of an application work before deeper testing B) Perform exhaustive functional coverage C) Measure response times under stress D) Validate UI design guidelines Answer: A Explanation: Smoke tests act as a quick health check to decide if a build is stable enough for further testing. Question 36. Sanity testing is different from smoke testing because it: A) Is performed after a major release only B) Focuses on a narrow set of functionality related to a specific defect fix or change C) Requires performance metrics D) Is always automated Answer: B Explanation: Sanity testing validates that a particular area works after minor changes, whereas smoke testing checks overall stability.
Explanation: Stress testing deliberately overloads the system to see how it fails and recovers. Question 40. Which security testing activity validates that a user can only access resources they are authorized for? A) Penetration testing B) Authentication testing C) Authorization testing D) Vulnerability scanning Answer: C Explanation: Authorization testing checks permission enforcement, ensuring users cannot access restricted data. Question 41. Usability testing primarily aims to: A) Measure transaction throughput B) Evaluate how easy and efficient the system is for end users C) Detect memory leaks D) Verify compliance with coding standards Answer: B Explanation: Usability focuses on user experience aspects like ease of learning, efficiency, and satisfaction. Question 42. Accessibility testing is concerned with: A) Ensuring the application runs on all operating systems B) Verifying compliance with standards such as WCAG for users with disabilities
C) Measuring response time under load D) Detecting SQL injection vulnerabilities Answer: B Explanation: Accessibility testing checks that the software can be used by people with visual, auditory, motor, or cognitive impairments. Question 43. Portability testing evaluates: A) How well the application performs under high load B) The ease with which software can be transferred to different environments or platforms C) The security of data at rest D) The completeness of documentation Answer: B Explanation: Portability concerns installing, configuring, and running the software on varied hardware, OS, or browsers. Question 44. In test management, a Test Strategy typically addresses: A) Detailed test case steps B) Risk‑based testing priorities, test levels, and entry/exit criteria C) Defect logging procedures only D) Test data generation scripts Answer: B Explanation: Strategy outlines high‑level approach, including risk assessment, levels, and criteria.
D) Conducting user surveys Answer: B Explanation: Proper CM ensures that test assets are stored, tracked, and reproducible across builds. Question 48. Which defect metric indicates the proportion of defects found before release compared to total defects discovered? A) Defect Density B) Defect Leakage Ratio C) Mean Time To Detect (MTTD) D) Test Coverage Answer: B Explanation: Defect Leakage Ratio measures defects that “leak” into later stages or production. Question 49. Mean Time To Detect (MTTD) is a key indicator of: A) How quickly developers fix bugs B) The speed at which defects are identified after they are introduced C) The average time a test case runs D) The number of test cases executed per day Answer: B Explanation: MTTD reflects detection efficiency; lower values indicate earlier discovery. Question 50. The Test Automation Pyramid recommends that:
A) Most automated tests should be UI‑level end‑to‑end tests B) The majority of automation should be at the unit level, fewer at service/API level, and even fewer at UI level C) Only performance tests should be automated D) Automation should replace all manual testing Answer: B Explanation: The pyramid advocates a larger base of fast, reliable unit tests, with fewer costly UI tests. Question 51. Which of the following criteria is most appropriate for selecting a test case to automate? A) A test that runs only once a year B) A high‑risk, frequently executed regression test with stable steps C) A one‑off exploratory test D) A test that requires visual validation of graphics Answer: B Explanation: Automation yields ROI when applied to repetitive, high‑risk, and stable test cases. Question 52. Return on Investment (ROI) for test automation can be negatively impacted by: A) High test execution frequency B) Frequent changes to the application UI that break scripts C) Parallel execution on multiple agents D) Use of data‑driven frameworks
