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Question 1. Which of the following best describes the “First Way” in the Three Ways of DevOps? A) Emphasizing rapid feedback loops B) Optimizing the flow of work from development to operations C) Encouraging continuous learning and experimentation D) Implementing strict governance policies Answer: B Explanation: The First Way focuses on improving the flow of value by eliminating bottlenecks and waste from idea to delivery. Question 2. In the CALMS framework, the “M” stands for: A) Metrics B) Management C) Monitoring D) Maintenance Answer: A Explanation: CALMS = Culture, Automation, Lean, Measurement, Sharing. Measurement refers to using data to drive decisions. Question 3. Which cultural model classifies an organization that punishes failure and discourages sharing of information? A) Generative culture B) Bureaucratic culture C) Pathological culture D) Collaborative culture
Answer: C Explanation: Pathological cultures are characterized by fear, blame, and low trust, inhibiting learning. Question 4. In a “you build it, you run it” team, the primary benefit is: A) Reduced need for automation B) Greater accountability for production quality C) Faster release cycles without testing D) Clear separation of development and operations Answer: B Explanation: When teams own both development and operations, they are motivated to produce reliable, maintainable software. Question 5. Which Lean waste is most directly addressed by reducing batch size in a CI pipeline? A) Overproduction B) Waiting C) Defects D) Motion Answer: B Explanation: Smaller batches reduce waiting time between stages, enabling faster feedback and flow. Question 6. A value stream map typically measures all of the following EXCEPT: A) Cycle time
Explanation: Declarative pipelines are defined in a Jenkinsfile, enabling version‑controlled pipeline definitions. Question 9. Which testing level is most appropriate for verifying interactions between microservices? A) Unit test B) Integration test C) End‑to‑end test E) Smoke test Answer: B Explanation: Integration tests focus on communication between components, such as microservice APIs. Question 10. The “Blue/Green” deployment pattern primarily minimizes: A) Database schema changes B) User downtime during release C) Configuration drift D) Container image size Answer: B Explanation: By routing traffic to an identical “green” environment, users experience no downtime while the “blue” version is upgraded. Question 11. Which of the following best describes a “Canary Release”? A) Deploying to a single server for testing B) Rolling out changes to a small percentage of users first
C) Switching traffic between two identical environments D) Using feature flags to hide new code Answer: B Explanation: Canary releases expose a subset of traffic to the new version, allowing early detection of issues. Question 12. Infrastructure as Code (IaC) tools are typically: A) Imperative scripting languages only B) Declarative configurations stored in version control C) Manual UI‑based configuration tools D) Used only for container orchestration Answer: B Explanation: IaC tools like Terraform use declarative files that describe desired state, enabling reproducibility and versioning. Question 13. Which configuration management tool uses a “pull” model where agents fetch desired state from a server? A) Ansible B) Chef C) Puppet D) Terraform Answer: C Explanation: Puppet agents periodically pull configuration catalogs from the Puppet master.
D) Automated code generation Answer: B Explanation: Service meshes (e.g., Istio) provide traffic management, telemetry, and mutual TLS between services. Question 17. Which pillar of observability focuses on capturing time‑series numerical data? A) Logs B) Metrics C) Traces D) Events Answer: B Explanation: Metrics are numeric measurements collected over time, useful for alerting and capacity planning. Question 18. Distributed tracing is most useful for: A) Detecting hardware failures B) Understanding request latency across microservice calls C) Storing application logs centrally D) Measuring CPU utilization Answer: B Explanation: Traces follow a single request as it traverses multiple services, highlighting latency contributors.
Question 19. Which of the following is NOT a typical Service Level Indicator (SLI)? A) 99.9% request success rate B. Average page load time C. Number of developers on the team D. Error rate per thousand requests Answer: C Explanation: SLIs are quantitative measures of service performance; team size is not an SLI. Question 20. An “Error Budget” is calculated as: A) 100% – SLA target B) SLA target – actual availability C) Total number of incidents per month D) Time spent on bug fixing Answer: A Explanation: Error budget = 100% – agreed‑upon SLO (e.g., if SLO is 99.9% uptime, error budget is 0.1%). Question 21. In SRE, “toil” is defined as work that is: A) High‑value, strategic, and automatable B) Repetitive, manual, and lacks lasting value C) Related to security compliance D) Performed only during incident response Answer: B
C) Long lead times D) Low deployment frequency Answer: B Explanation: Change Failure Rate is the proportion of deployments causing a failure that requires remediation. Question 25. The “Mean Time to Restore Service (MTTR)” captures: A) Average time to develop a new feature B) Average time to recover from a production incident C) Time to run a full test suite D) Time to provision new infrastructure Answer: B Explanation: MTTR measures how quickly a service is restored after an outage. Question 26. Which practice is an example of “Shift‑Left Security”? A) Conducting penetration testing after release B) Running static code analysis during the build stage C) Storing secrets in environment variables only in production D) Applying firewall rules after deployment Answer: B Explanation: Shift‑Left moves security checks earlier, such as SAST during CI.
Question 27. Dependency scanning tools primarily help with: A) Identifying unused code B) Detecting known vulnerabilities in third‑party libraries C) Measuring code coverage D) Automating database migrations Answer: B Explanation: Dependency scanners compare library versions against vulnerability databases. Question 28. Which secret management solution provides dynamic, short‑lived credentials? A) GitHub Secrets B) HashiCorp Vault C) Docker Hub D) Kubernetes ConfigMap Answer: B Explanation: Vault can generate time‑limited credentials for databases, cloud services, etc. Question 29. A “blameless post‑mortem” focuses on: A) Assigning responsibility to the individual who caused the incident B) Identifying systemic factors and process improvements C) Punishing the team for repeated failures D) Documenting only the technical stack trace Answer: B
C) replicaCount D) restartPolicy Answer: B Explanation: maxUnavailable specifies how many Pods may be down simultaneously during a rolling update. Question 33. Which metric would be most appropriate to monitor for detecting memory leaks in a Java service? A) CPU utilization percentage B) Heap usage over time (RSS) C) Number of HTTP 500 responses D. Disk I/O latency Answer: B Explanation: A steadily increasing heap size indicates a possible memory leak. Question 34. The “Three Pillars of Observability” do NOT include: A) Metrics B) Logs C) Traces D) Dashboards Answer: D Explanation: Dashboards are a consumption layer, not a pillar; the pillars are metrics, logs, and traces.
Question 35. Which of the following is a common “Lean” waste in software delivery? A) Over‑engineering features that users never need B) Using version control C) Automating builds D) Conducting daily stand‑ups Answer: A Explanation: Overproduction (building unnecessary features) is one of the seven wastes Lean identifies. Question 36. In the context of DevOps, “Kaizen” refers to: A) Large, infrequent releases B) Continuous, incremental improvement C) Strict change control boards D) Outsourcing operations Answer: B Explanation: Kaizen is a Japanese term for ongoing, small‑scale improvements. Question 37. Which of the following best describes “Gitflow” branching model? A) One long‑living trunk with feature flags B) Separate long‑living branches for development and release, with supporting feature branches C) Fork‑based contributions only D) No branching, all commits go directly to master
B) During the build stage, before unit tests C) After integration tests D. During manual QA Answer: B Explanation: Running static analysis early catches issues before further processing. Question 41. Which of the following best illustrates “feedback loops” in DevOps? A) Deploying code without testing B) Collecting user metrics after release and feeding them back into backlog grooming C. Ignoring production logs D. Using a single large batch for releases Answer: B Explanation: Short feedback loops ensure that data from production influences future development. Question 42. A “Synthetic Monitoring” tool primarily simulates: A) Real user interactions from the browser B) Network packet loss C. Database replication lag D. Server hardware failures Answer: A Explanation: Synthetic monitoring scripts emulate user journeys to test availability and performance.
Question 43. Which of the following is a primary goal of “Value Stream Mapping”? A) Identify and reduce non‑value‑adding steps B. Increase the number of code repositories C. Standardize naming conventions D. Automate security scans Answer: A Explanation: Value stream mapping visualizes the flow to spot waste and bottlenecks. Question 44. In a CI/CD workflow, “Canary” and “Blue/Green” are examples of: A) Version control strategies B) Deployment patterns C. Build automation tools D. Test data generation methods Answer: B Explanation: Both are techniques for releasing new code safely. Question 45. Which of the following statements about “Infrastructure as Code” is FALSE? A) IaC enables reproducible environments B) IaC eliminates the need for any manual configuration C) IaC files can be stored in source control D) IaC supports both declarative and imperative styles Answer: B
C. Keeping Docker container logs D. Saving test results only locally Answer: A Explanation: Artifacts are the outputs (e.g., JAR, Docker image) stored for downstream stages. Question 49. Which of the following is the most appropriate metric to evaluate the effectiveness of automated testing? A) Number of test cases written per sprint B) Test coverage percentage of production code C. Number of developers on the team D. Frequency of manual exploratory testing Answer: B Explanation: Test coverage indicates how much production code is exercised by automated tests. Question 50. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of containerization? A) Consistent runtime environment across machines B. Automatic scaling without orchestration C. Isolation of dependencies D. Faster start‑up times Answer: B Explanation: Containers need an orchestrator (e.g., Kubernetes) to achieve automatic scaling.
Question 51. In Kubernetes, the object that provides a stable IP address and DNS name for a set of Pods is: A) ConfigMap B) Service C) Deployment D) PersistentVolume Answer: B Explanation: A Service abstracts pods and offers stable networking. Question 52. Which of the following best describes “GitOps”? A) Managing infrastructure with Git pull requests and automated pipelines B. Writing Git commands in Bash scripts only C. Using Git as a backup tool for binaries D. Requiring all developers to commit directly to master Answer: A Explanation: GitOps treats Git as the single source of truth for both application and infrastructure changes. Question 53. Which of the following is a typical sign that a CI pipeline is becoming a “bottleneck”? A) Build times consistently under 2 minutes B. Frequent pipeline failures due to flaky tests C. No integration tests defined D. Developers commit directly to production
