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Level 2 coxswain test 2.
What is risk assessment? - ANSWERA structured process to identify and assess hazards What is a hazard? - ANSWERAny real condition or potential condition that can cause injury, illness, or death to personnel. What is risk? - ANSWERAn expression of possible loss in terms of severity and probability. What is probability? - ANSWERA measure of the likelihood that a potential consequence will occur. What is severity? - ANSWERAn assessment of the potential consequence that can occur as a result of a hazard. What is a risk decision? - ANSWERThe decision to accept the risks associated with an action. What are the three types of risks? - ANSWERAcceptable risk, unacceptable risk, and residual risk. What are the three levels of ORM? - ANSWER1. Time Critical, 2. Deliberate, 3. In Depth
What does TCRM stand for? - ANSWERTime Critical Risk Management What do the ABCD'S of tcrm stand for? - ANSWERAssess the situation, Balance resources, Communicate to others, Do and Debrief What are the responsibilities of a coxswain? - ANSWERResponsible for safe, orderly, efficient, and effective performance of the boat, crew, and passengers during the mission. True or false: compliance with and departure from shall be addressed during mission briefs prior to getting underway? - ANSWERTrue What is defense in depth? - ANSWERThe fundamental concept of asset protection is defense in depth using multiple layers of zones, coordinated use of various assets including sensors, and the coordinated efforts of air, land, and sea forces. What is the assessment zone? - ANSWEROutermost zone for HVA protection and extends to the reach of organic and inorganic sensors. What is the intercept zone? - ANSWERExtends at least 1,000 yards from the outer boundary of reaction zone. It is established to increase the time to react to a threat. What is the reaction zone? - ANSWERIdeally extends 1,000 yards from the hva. This zone is where u identified or potentially hostile contacts are engaged.
What is the optimum protection posture in a escort? - ANSWERA four boat detachment True or false: the security zone principle should be extended to protect all assigned assets - ANSWERTrue When is the intercept phase initiated? - ANSWERTypically after visual or electronic detection When does the approach phase occur? - ANSWEROccurs when a tactical boat closes a COI to determine intent. What is target angle? - ANSWERIt is out vessels relative bearing from another vessel True or false: the safest position is to take station off the COI'S quarter. - ANSWERTrue What are the three classifications used for COI's? - ANSWERCompliant, non compliant, and VPIT. True or false: when outside US territorial jurisdiction, US forces operate in accordance with established ROE/RUF. - ANSWERtrue Operations are not conducted in accordance with international law? True or false - ANSWERFalse.
Which vessel has the primary role of intercepting, engaging, and if necessary destroying any vessel attempting to enter a protected HVA's exclusion zone? a. Escort vessel b. Screening vessel c. Reaction vessel d. Intercept vessel - ANSWERC. Reaction vessel Making risk decisions is which step in the 5-step process of ORM? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four - ANSWERC. Three (True/False) Tactical boats conducting active patrolling should be used to assist in the inspections at Vessel Entry Control Points. a. True b. False - ANSWERB.false What is the preferred defensive posture for a pier side HVA in a low-threat environment? a. Two boat patrol; one boat in intercept zone and one boat in reaction zone b. Three boat patrol; one boat in intercept zone and two boats in reaction zone
a. Break off and fall behind the escort to provide layered defense b. The SV should maintain position until HVA has completed its transit c. Break off and proceed ahead of the escort to check and clear chokepoint d. The SV should maintain position, then break off after clearing the chokepoint - ANSWERc. Break off and proceed ahead of the escort to check and clear chokepoint When protecting multiple assets, the. assigned assets. a. Assessment b. Intercept c. Security d. Warning - ANSWERc. Security In a single HVA escort what is the optimum protective posture in high-threat waters? a. Two boat escort b. Four boat escort c. One boat escort d. Three boat escort - ANSWERB. Four boat escort What phase of contact prosecution is typically initiated after visual or electronic detection? a. Intercept phase b. Approach phase c. Engagement phase
d. Escort phase - ANSWERa. Intercept phase What is the purpose of the approach phase? a. To begin the screening process, and access the craft b. To shadow the vessel from a safe distance c. To engage the hostile vessel d. To determine the COI's intent - ANSWERd. To determine the COI's intent (True/False) The safest position for a tactical boat to take is off the quarter of the COI. a. True b. False - ANSWERa. True Which of the following statements best describes a VPIT? a. A vessel that heeds warnings, orders, and poses no threat b. A vessel that has demonstrated hostile intent and or committed a hostile act c. A vessel that refuses to heave to after being legally ordered to d. A vessel engaged in fishing an refuses orders - ANSWERb. A vessel that has demonstrated hostile intent and or committed a hostile act During a sector switch where does the switch take place? a. Intercept zone b. Reaction zone c. Sector boundary
When executing a shouldering maneuver, the SV should approach the COl on a a. Head on course b. Stern on course c. Roughly parallel course d. None of the above - ANSWERc. Roughly parallel course Ramming is considered deadly force and will only be used against a a. Compliant COI b. VPIT C. HVA d. Noncompliant COI - ANSWERb. VPIT When clearing a field of fire the SV if able to will typically turn how many degrees from course? a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 120 - ANSWERC. 90 More than one primary mission objective could cause what? a. Confusion b. Casualties c. Failure
d. All of the above - ANSWERD. All of the above What acronym best describes the 6-step planning process that a patrol leader would use to organize and prepare the patrol? a. RAZORS b. BAMCIS C. ASMEAC d. BACISR - ANSWERb. BAMCIS Who is responsible for the oversight of assigned assets as well as providing guidance as needed. a. Base Commander b. Operational Commander c. Tactical Commander d. Squadron Commander - ANSWERC. Tactical commander Challenge and reply procedures are examples of what? a. OPSEC b. OPCON C. TACON d. None of the above - ANSWERA. OPSEC
a. Commander in Chief b. U.S. Congress c. Unit Commander d. Secretary of Defense - ANSWERd. Secretary of Defense Deadly force is justified only under conditions of extreme necessity and when which of the following circumstances are present? a. Lesser means have been exhausted, are unavailable, or cannot be reasonably employed b. Risk of death or serious bodily harm to innocent persons is not significantly increased by its use c. In self-defense or the defense of others d. All of the above - ANSWERd. All of the above Which of the following is NOT an example of how multiple-boat patrols offer flexibility in response? a. Layered defense b. Supporting fire C. Best tactical picture d. Counter ambush - ANSWERC. Best tactical picture (True/False) During time of war the use of excessive force is authorized. a. True
b. False - ANSWERB. False When conducting defense in depth how do you provide an inner defensive layer? a. The HVA's surveillance and weapons systems b. Tactical boats conducting security operations c. Patrol aircraft d. Underwater sensors and harbor security patrolling - ANSWERd. Underwater sensors and harbor security patrolling Which publication provides important navigational information and chart corrections worldwide? a. American Practical Navigator b. Local notice to mariners C. Notice to mariners d. Summary to mariners - ANSWERC. Notice to mariners What security zone is established to increase the time to react to a threat? a. Assessment zone b. Intercept zone c. Reaction zone d. Safety zone - ANSWERb. Intercept zone (True/False) A Limited Access Area (LAA) is established to assist with supervision of vessel
d. Naval Vessel Protection Zone - ANSWERd. Naval Vessel Protection Zone
. (True/False) A security zone limits access to vessels, structuresm and shore areas for safety or environmental protection purposes because of hazardous conditions may be established by the cognizant Captain of the Port (COTP). a. True b. False - ANSWERB. False (True/False) The screening vessel (SV) detects, identifies, investigates, classifies, reports, warns off, and, if necessary, engages COls. a. True b. False - ANSWERA. True (True/False) The goal of ORM is to eliminate risks associated with mission accomplishment. a true b. False - ANSWERB false Who has the authority to direct all boat and crew activities during the mission? a. Unit Commander b. Captain c. Coxswain
d. OIC - ANSWERc. Coxswain Which of the following is not a responsibility of the coxswain? a. Maintaining boat logs b. Weapon conditions c. Awareness of current weather conditions d. Mission briefs - ANSWERd. Mission briefs When are tactical boat coxswains relieved of their responsibilities under the navigation rules? a. Never b. Always c. During combat missions d. During HVA escorts - ANSWERA. Never
- Which of the following statements are NOT true in relation to high speed maneuvers against a COl? a. Maneuver the boat in response to the COl's movements b. During the course of the turn, your bow should be pointed at the quarter of the COl's vessel c. Maintain a position between the COI and the HVA d. Keep enough distance between the tactical boat and the COI to prevent a collision - ANSWERb. During the course of the turn, your bow should be pointed at the quarter of the COl's vessel
a. Time critical b. In-depth c. Deliberate d. Routine - ANSWERC. Deliberate When might a coxswain be directed and/or need to depart from navigational rules? a. Always b. Never c. During training d. During missions - ANSWERD. During missions Over steering during high speed maneuvers against a COI can lead to what undesired effect? a. Chining b. Decrease in speed c. Sudden change in craft aspect d. All of the above - ANSWERD. All of the above The _______________ Zone may be divided into two or more sectors based on the number of available tactical boats. a. Intercept
b. Reaction c. Assessment d. Security - ANSWERA. Intercept zone TRUE/FALSE) A safety zone is an area of land, water, or land and water which is so designated by the Captain of the Port or District Commander established to prevent damage or injury to any vessel or waterfront facility, to safeguard ports, harbors, territories, or waters of the U.S., and to secure the observance rights and obligations of the U.S. a. True b. False - ANSWERB. False Which security zone may be integrated into the overall defensive sea area force protection plan? a. Assessment Zone b. Intercept Zone c. Reaction Zone d. Safety Zone - ANSWERA. Assessment zone Tactical boats conducting active patrolling ______________________ be used to assist in the vessel entry control point inspections. a. Should always b. Will always
