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Question 1. Which executive order formally created the National Industrial Security Program (NISP)? A) EO 12333 B) EO 12829 C) EO 13526 D) EO 10450 Answer: B Explanation: Executive Order 12829, issued in 1993, established the NISP to provide a uniform security system for contractors handling classified information. Question 2. The primary rulebook governing the NISP is found in which part of the Code of Federal Regulations? A) 32 CFR Part 2000 B) 31 CFR Part 500 C) 32 CFR Part 117 D) 40 CFR Part 150 Answer: C Explanation: 32 CFR Part 117, known as the NISPOM, contains the detailed requirements for contractors to protect classified information. Question 3. Who is the Cognizant Security Agency (CSA) for most Department of Defense (DoD) contractors? A) DTRA B) DCSA C) DHS D) FBI
Answer: B Explanation: The Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency (DCSA) serves as the CSA for the majority of DoD industrial security programs. Question 4. Which individual is directly responsible for reporting security incidents to the CSA? A) Facility Security Officer (FSO) B) Contracting Officer (CO) C) Program Manager (PM) D) Human Resources Director Answer: A Explanation: The FSO is the contractor’s designated security official and must report incidents, such as compromised material, to the CSA promptly. Question 5. What is the primary difference between “eligibility” and “access” in personnel security? A) Eligibility is a clearance; access is a need‑to‑know determination. B) Eligibility refers to medical fitness; access refers to training. C) Eligibility is granted by the contractor; access is granted by the government. D) There is no difference; the terms are synonymous. Answer: A Explanation: Eligibility indicates a cleared status, while access requires a separate determination that the individual has a legitimate need‑to‑know for specific classified material. Question 6. Which tier of Personnel Security Investigation (PSI) is required for a Top Secret clearance? A) Tier 1 (T1)
Question 9. Which classification level is defined as “exceptionally grave damage to national security” if disclosed? A) Confidential B) Secret C) Top Secret D) Restricted Data Answer: C Explanation: Top Secret is the highest classification level, indicating that unauthorized disclosure could cause exceptionally grave damage. Question 10. A document that is derived from a classified source but contains no classified content is considered: A) Unclassified. B) Declassified. C) Derivative classified. D) Restricted. Answer: A Explanation: If a derivative document contains no classified material, it is treated as unclassified; however, it must be marked “UNCLASSIFIED” to avoid confusion. Question 11. Portion marking is required when: A) The entire document is classified at the same level. B) Only specific paragraphs or sections are classified. C) The document is a draft. D) The document is stored electronically.
Answer: B Explanation: Portion marking identifies the classification of individual paragraphs, sub‑paragraphs, or subjects within a mixed‑classification document. Question 12. Which color is used on banner lines to indicate a Secret classification? A) Red B) Blue C) Yellow D) Green Answer: B Explanation: Blue banner lines denote Secret classification on physical and electronic documents, while red indicates Top Secret. Question 13. Working papers that are not yet classified must be marked as: A) “CLASSIFIED – TOP SECRET” B) “DRAFT – UNCLASSIFIED” C) “UNCLASSIFIED – DRAFT” D) No marking is required. Answer: C Explanation: Unclassified working papers should be marked “UNCLASSIFIED – DRAFT” to indicate their status and prevent accidental classification. Question 14. Which class of GSA‑approved storage container is required for Top Secret material? A) Class 1 B) Class 3
A) Weekly. B) Monthly. C) Quarterly. D) Annually. Answer: B Explanation: NISPOM requires IDS to be tested monthly to ensure proper operation and timely response to breaches. Question 18. Which method is authorized for the external transmission of Secret material via the U.S. Postal Service? A) First‑Class Mail B) Registered Mail only C) Express Mail (EMS) only D) Certified Mail only Answer: B Explanation: Secret material may be sent through USPS Registered Mail, which provides tracking and secure handling. Question 19. For Top Secret material, the Defense Courier Service (DCS) is used because: A) It is the cheapest method. B) It provides a cleared escort and secure containers. C) It allows civilian couriers to transport material. D) It does not require a courier briefing. Answer: B
Explanation: DCS employs cleared personnel and secure containers, meeting the stringent requirements for Top Secret transmission. Question 20. The “double envelope” method is employed to: A) Reduce the weight of the package. B) Conceal the classification level from the outer carrier. C) Increase the speed of delivery. D) Allow the package to be mailed unregistered. Answer: B Explanation: Double‑enveloping hides the inner classified contents, preventing the outer carrier from seeing the classification level. Question 21. Prior to hand‑carrying Top Secret material, the courier must receive: A) A written briefing and a signed escort authorization. B) A verbal instruction from the FSO only. C) No special preparation; any cleared individual may carry. D) A travel voucher. Answer: A Explanation: Hand‑carrying Top Secret requires a formal briefing and an escort authorization letter to ensure awareness of handling procedures. Question 22. In the Risk Management Framework (RMF), which step follows “Implementation” of security controls? A) Categorization B) Authorization (ATO)
A) Any intentional loss of classified material. B) A failure that does not result in loss or compromise of classified information. C) A criminal act against the United States. D) A breach that leads to espionage. Answer: B Explanation: An infraction is a security lapse that, while serious, does not result in actual loss or compromise of classified data. Question 26. The timeframe for reporting an open safe to the CSA is: A) Within 24 hours. B) Immediately, no later than 1 hour. C) Within 48 hours. D) By the end of the next business day. Answer: B Explanation: NISPOM requires immediate reporting (generally within one hour) of any open safe or compromised storage to the CSA. Question 27. Retention rules for classified material state that most Secret documents must be retained for at least: A) 1 year. B) 3 years. C) 5 years. D) 10 years. Answer: C
Explanation: The standard retention period for Secret‑level material is five years, after which it may be destroyed or returned per policy. Question 28. Which destruction method is approved for Top Secret paper documents? A) Shredding to 1‑inch particles. B) Burning in an open flame. C) Cross‑cut shredding to ≤ ¼‑inch particles with a witness. D) Pulping without supervision. Answer: C Explanation: Top Secret paper must be cross‑cut shredded to particles no larger than ¼ inch, and a second cleared individual must witness the destruction. Question 29. The SF‑701 is used to record: A) Access authorizations. B) Security container combination changes. C) Personnel security investigations. D) Incident reports. Answer: B Explanation: SF‑701 documents the combination or key changes for GSA‑approved storage containers. Question 30. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a Restricted Area? A) A locked door with a combination lock. B) Continuous video surveillance. C. 24‑hour security guard presence.
B) A Top Secret clearance and a current polygraph. C) A Top Secret clearance and a valid government‑issued ID. D) No clearance; escort status is independent. Answer: C Explanation: An escort must hold a current Top Secret clearance and a government‑issued ID to validate their authority to transport the material. Question 34. Which of the following is an authorized method for transmitting Top Secret material by air? A) Commercial airline checked baggage. B) Defense Courier Service (DCS) aircraft. C) Private charter with no escort. D) Standard USPS First‑Class Air Mail. Answer: B Explanation: DCS provides secure air transportation with cleared personnel and approved containers for Top Secret material. Question 35. Under the NISPOM, a “cover sheet” (SF‑703) must be used when: A) Sending unclassified material. B) Transmitting classified material via electronic mail. C) Moving classified material from one desk to another within a protected area. D) Storing classified material in a GSA safe. Answer: C Explanation: The SF‑703 cover sheet records the movement of classified documents between desks or workstations inside a secured environment.
Question 36. Which type of intrusion detection alarm must be reset and documented after activation? A) Smoke detector. B) Motion sensor in a classified room. C) Fire alarm. D) Doorbell. Answer: B Explanation: Motion sensors in classified areas trigger security alarms; after response, they must be reset and logged per NISPOM requirements. Question 37. The “need‑to‑know” principle applies regardless of an individual’s: A) Rank or position. B) Clearance level. C) Security training. D) Length of service. Answer: A Explanation: Need‑to‑know overrides considerations of rank; even senior personnel must have a legitimate requirement to access specific classified data. Question 38. Which of the following is considered a “security violation”? A) Forgetting to wear a badge for a day. B) Leaving a classified document unattended in a public area. C) Using a personal computer for non‑classified work. D) Arriving late to a security briefing.
B) 24 hours. C) 1 hour. D) 48 hours. Answer: C Explanation: Immediate reporting (generally within one hour) is required to mitigate potential compromise. Question 42. Which of the following is NOT a required element on a classified document’s banner line? A) Classification level. B) Downgrading instructions. C) Date of creation. D) Owner agency. Answer: C Explanation: Banner lines include classification, downgrading instructions, and the owning agency, but not the creation date. Question 43. Which of the following storage containers is approved for Secret material? A) Class 1 safe. B) Class 3 safe. C) Class 5 safe. D) Class 7 safe. Answer: B Explanation: Class 3 containers meet the GSA standards for storing Secret‑level material.
Question 44. The SF‑704 is used to document: A) Transfer of classified material between facilities. B) Access authorizations for contractors. C) Security container combination changes. D) Incident reports. Answer: A Explanation: SF‑704 is the “Classified Material Transfer Report” used when moving classified items between secure locations. Question 45. Which of the following is a required feature of a Closed Area where classified material is processed? A) No windows. B) A continuous audible alarm. C) A security alarm system that monitors entry. D) A fire suppression system only. Answer: C Explanation: Closed Areas must have an intrusion detection system that monitors and alarms on unauthorized entry. Question 46. The term “derivative classification” means: A) Re‑classifying unclassified material. B) Applying classification based on existing classified sources. C) Removing classification from a document. D) Classifying a document without any source. Answer: B
C) Over‑writing with a DoD‑approved sanitization tool. D) Incineration. Answer: C Explanation: SSDs cannot be degaussed; they must be sanitized by approved overwriting or physical destruction methods. Question 50. Which of the following actions would be considered a “security infraction”? A) Accidentally leaving a classified folder on a printer in a Closed Area. B) Deliberately transmitting Top Secret material to an unauthorized foreign entity. C) Publishing classified information on a public website. D) Using a personal email account to discuss classified work. Answer: A Explanation: Leaving a classified folder unattended is a lapse that could lead to compromise but does not itself result in loss, thus an infraction. Question 51. In the RMF, which document provides the baseline security controls for a classified system? A) NIST SP 800‑53. B) DoD 5220.22‑M. C) ISO 27001. D) CIA Triad. Answer: A Explanation: NIST Special Publication 800‑53 defines the baseline security controls used in the RMF for federal information systems.
Question 52. Which of the following is the correct order of steps in the NISPOM’s incident response process? A) Containment → Reporting → Investigation → Corrective Action. B) Reporting → Containment → Investigation → Corrective Action. C) Investigation → Reporting → Containment → Corrective Action. D) Corrective Action → Reporting → Containment → Investigation. Answer: B Explanation: The first step is to report the incident, then contain the breach, investigate, and implement corrective actions. Question 53. A contractor’s Facility Security Officer (FSO) must be: A) A senior manager with no security clearance. B) A cleared individual with a minimum of Secret clearance. C) A civilian contractor with no background investigation. D) A member of the local police department. Answer: B Explanation: The FSO must hold at least a Secret clearance and be a cleared individual to perform security duties. Question 54. When transporting classified material by hand, the courier must wear: A) A civilian ID badge. B) A uniform with rank insignia. C) A government‑issued identification card and the appropriate cover sheet. D) No identification; the material is the only credential. Answer: C
