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Coimisiún na Scrúduithe Stáit

State Examinations Commission

Leaving Certificate 201 6

Marking Scheme

Ordinary Level

Home Economics – Scientific and Social

Note to teachers and students on the use of published marking schemes

Marking schemes published by the State Examinations Commission are not intended to be standalone documents. They are an essential resource for examiners who receive training in the correct interpretation and application of the scheme. This training involves, among other things, marking samples of student work and discussing the marks awarded, so as to clarify the correct application of the scheme. The work of examiners is subsequently monitored by Advising Examiners to ensure consistent and accurate application of the marking scheme. This process is overseen by the Chief Examiner, usually assisted by a Chief Advising Examiner. The Chief Examiner is the final authority regarding whether or not the marking scheme has been correctly applied to any piece of candidate work.

Marking schemes are working documents. While a draft marking scheme is prepared in advance of the examination, the scheme is not finalised until examiners have applied it to candidates’ work and the feedback from all examiners has been collated and considered in light of the full range of responses of candidates, the overall level of difficulty of the examination and the need to maintain consistency in standards from year to year. This published document contains the finalised scheme, as it was applied to all candidates’ work.

In the case of marking schemes that include model solutions or answers, it should be noted that these are not intended to be exhaustive. Variations and alternatives may also be acceptable. Examiners must consider all answers on their merits, and will have consulted with their Advising Examiners when in doubt.

Future Marking Schemes

Assumptions about future marking schemes on the basis of past schemes should be avoided. While the underlying assessment principles remain the same, the details of the marking of a particular type of question may change in the context of the contribution of that question to the overall examination in a given year. The Chief Examiner in any given year has the responsibility to determine how best to ensure the fair and accurate assessment of candidates’ work and to ensure consistency in the standard of the assessment from year to year. Accordingly, aspects of the structure, detail and application of the marking scheme for a particular examination are subject to change from one year to the next without notice.

Section A

Answer any ten questions from this section. Each question is worth 6 marks. Write your answers in the spaces provided.

1. Indicate with a tick (  ) whether each of the following statements is true or false. (6)

True False

Protein is the only nutrient that contains nitrogen. 

Excess protein is stored as adipose tissue. 

Protein is necessary for the growth of body cells. 

2. Give one dietary source of each of the following carbohydrates. (6) 3. State two functions of Vitamin A. (6)

(i) production of rhodopsin; healthy lining membranes; healthy skin and hair;

(ii) growth and repair of body cells; prevents night blindness; aids growth and development of children; beta carotene acts as a powerful antioxidant that can counteract the damaging effects of free radicals; etc.

Name two good dietary sources of Vitamin A.

(i) retinol : fish; fish liver oils; margarine; dairy products - butter; milk; cheese; eggs; meat; offal; margarine;

(ii) beta carotene : green leafy vegetables; carrots; tomatoes; yellow/red peppers; sweet potatoes; apricots; etc.

Carbohydrate Dietary source

Sugar fruit; table sugar; fizzy drinks; cakes; biscuits; sweets; jam; honey; etc.

Starch rice; pasta; potatoes; bread; breakfast cereals; flour; etc.

Fibre wholegrain bread; wholegrain cereals; fruit; vegetables; seeds; nuts; wholemeal pasta; wheat bran; etc.

4. List three factors that influence the energy requirements of teenagers. (6)

(i) gender; age; body size; activity level;

(ii) sedentary lifestyle; climate; health status; growth spurts;

(iii) amount of exercise; BMR; etc.

5. Name two nutrients necessary in the diet to prevent osteoporosis. (6)

(i) vitamin D; vitamin C; protein;

(ii) calcium; phosphorus; etc.

State one lifestyle change that would improve bone health.

increase exercise; weight bearing exercise; reduce alcohol; cut out smoking; sunshine; etc.

6. Using the words listed below, complete the following statements in relation to cheese. (6)

curds, lactic acid, rennin

In the production of cheese a culture is added to milk to convert the lactose to

lactic acid. The enzyme rennin changes caseinogen to casein. The mixture is allowed to rest

for 30 minutes and separates into curds and whey.

7. Indicate with a tick (  ) whether each of the following statements is true or false. (6)

True False

Quick freezing at -25°C forms small ice crystals within the food cells.

Bananas and lettuce are suitable foods for freezing. 

Vegetables are blanched before freezing to destroy enzymes. 

11. Indicate with a tick (  ) which of the following household appliances has a motor or an element. (6)

Household appliance Element Motor

Kettle 

Food processor 

Toaster 

12. Name two sources of renewable energy. (6)

(i) hydro (water); geothermal; biomass; wood burners; plant material;

(ii) solar; wind; tidal – wave power; etc.

Explain the benefit of renewable energy to the environment.

sustainable - will not run out; clean; efficient; produce very little pollution; some have no waste products; etc.

Section B

Answer Question 1 and any other two questions from this section. Question 1 is worth 80 marks. Questions 2, 3, 4 and 5 are worth 50 marks each.

1 ‘Saturated fat has a bad reputation in recent years, but it might not be entirely deserved. Foods such as milk that are high in SFA (saturated fatty acids) and high in calcium don’t seem to raise harmful cholesterol levels.’ ( Paula Mee, The Irish Times, July 2015)

The table below shows the nutritional content of two pre-prepared meals.

Pre-prepared meal Ingredients Nutritional Information (per serving) Fisherman’s pie Potato, cod, cream, milk, butter, cheese, onion, peas, salt.

Energy 392 kcal Fat 18.4 g Carbohydrates 37.9 g Fibre 3.1 g Protein 17.2 g Salt 1.9 g Chicken curry with rice

White rice, chicken, apple, onion, curry powder, garlic, tomato puree, flour, salt.

Energy 524 kcal Fat 8.0 g Carbohydrates 88.0 g Fibre 4.8 g Protein 22.0 g Salt 1.7 g

(a) Using the information presented in the table above, state which of the pre-prepared meals you would recommend for a young person involved in sport. Explain three reasons for your choice. (20)

Name: 2 marks, Reasons: 3 @ 6 marks each Fisherman’s pie : fat for heat & energy; low in saturated fat preventing build-up of cholesterol; carbohydrates from potato; contains starch; low GI provides heat and a long lasting source of energy; contains fibre needed to prevent constipation; (HBV) protein for growth and repair; salt 30% of adult RDA; salt for hydration; white fish low in fat; etc. Chicken curry with rice : higher kcals; low in fat; carbohydrates in rice; low GI needed for heat and energy; fibre to aid peristalsis; protein (HBV) growth & repair; lower salt content - needed for hydration; will not increase the risk of blood pressure; etc.

(b) Give an account of lipids (fats) under each of the following headings:

 Classification (8) 2 classes @ 4 marks each animal; plant; marine; saturated; unsaturated; monounsaturated; polyunsaturated; etc.

2. ‘Going vegetarian is one of the best things you could do for your health. All the nutrients you need are easily provided in a vegetarian diet.’ ( Vegetarian Society of Ireland, July 2015 )

(a) Discuss four reasons why some teenagers become vegetarian. (20)

4 reasons @ 5 marks each Cultural : traditional diet of a particular area or country; etc. Religion : some Jews or Muslims do not eat pork; some Hindus are vegetarian; etc. Moral/Ethics : may believe it is wrong to kill animals for the human food chain; may disagree with intensive animal rearing; etc. Health : vegetarian diets are healthier; lower in saturated fat; higher in fibre thus preventing bowel disorders; reducing the risk of heart disease, obesity, and Type 2 diabetes; etc. Choice : may not like the taste, smell, appearance of meat/fish; many vegetarian options available e.g. quorn; TVP; wide selection of grains, nuts and seeds; sections in supermarkets dedicated to vegetarian options; available on restaurant menus; etc. Economic: vegetarian diet can be cheaper; etc. Family : parents or older sibling often influence a teenager to adopt a vegetarian diet; etc. Influence : family; celebrities; peers; media; etc.

(b) Having regard to current healthy eating guidelines, set out a menu (3 meals) for one day for a lacto-vegetarian to ensure their nutritional needs are met. (18)

3 menus (meals) @ 6 marks each

Breakfast Fresh Orange Juice Porridge with milk Wholemeal Toast Tea/Coffee/Water/ Milk Lunch Vegetable Soup with Brown Bread Strawberry Yoghurt Apple Tea/Coffee/Water/ Milk Dinner Egg Mayonnaise Vegetarian Stir Fry with Noodles Lemon Cheesecake Tea/Coffee/Water/ Milk

(c) Explain three guidelines that should be followed when preparing and cooking vegetables to retain maximum nutrients. (12)

3 guidelines @ 4 marks each (1 reference to preparation, 1 reference to cooking, plus 1 other) eat raw where possible; prepare just before cooking; use a sharp knife; leave skins on if possible; avoid steeping; cook in a small amount of water for short time until ‘al dente’; use saucepan with tightly fitted lid; use cooking liquid for soups and sauces; do not use bread soda as it destroys vitamin C; avoid overcooking; use suitable cooking methods e.g. steaming, stir frying and microwaving; etc.

3. ‘Eggs are great value, easy to cook and a very versatile ingredient for both savoury and sweet dishes.’ (www.bordbia.ie)

(a) Describe (i) the nutritional and (ii) the dietetic value of eggs. (20)

4 points @ 5 marks each (1 reference to nutritional value, 1 reference to dietetic value, plus 2 others) Nutritional : HBV protein; 100% biological value; white contains albumin, ovalbumin and globulin; yolk contains vitelin and livetin; saturated fat; lecithin - natural emulsifier; yolk contains cholesterol; white is fat-free; no carbohydrate; 75% water; fat soluble vitamins A, D,E, K; water soluble B group vitamins; calcium; phosphorus; iron; zinc; etc.

Dietetic : very versatile; can be used for lots of dishes both sweet and savoury; HBV protein assists growth and repair, ideal for children and adolescents; easy to digest; quick and easy to cook; can be eaten on their own; a meal in themselves when carbohydrate is added e.g. toast; contains saturated fat and cholesterol; have no vitamin C; important in the diet of a vegetarian; low in kilocalories - suitable for people following a calorie controlled diet; inexpensive and quick to cook saving energy costs; etc.

(b) Outline: (i) the factors to be considered when storing eggs (ii) the effects of heat on eggs. (20)

4 factors @ 5 marks each (1 reference to storing, 1 reference to effects of heat, plus 2 others) Storing : store in fridge @ 4˚C in egg compartment; remove from carton; store pointed end down; do not store near strongly flavoured foods; store leftover egg white in a sealed container for up to 2- days; store left over egg yolk in water for up to 4 days; use within best before date; do not wash the shell to avoid more rapid staling of egg; etc.

Effects of heat: protein coagulates; white changes colour; loss of vitamin B; high temperature causes curdling; overcooking makes eggs rubbery/tough; kills bacteria; egg white becomes insoluble when heated; a reaction between iron and sulphur causes a green ring to form around yolk if overcooked; etc.

(c) Describe two items of consumer information found on an egg carton (box). (10)

2 items @ 5 marks each country of origin; name and address; registration number of producer/packer; quantity; class; week number (1-52); size – small, medium, large; weight; use by/best before date; storage instructions; quality assurance mark; organic or free range; nutritional information; etc.

5. ‘According to the Annual Report of the Registrar General for 2014, some 22,033 marriages were recorded for the year, a 6.6% increase over the figure in 2013.’ (Irish Independent, July 2015)

(a) Discuss why marriage is a popular option for couples in Ireland today. (15)

3 points @ 5 marks each marriage is popular today because there are more options than the traditional model e.g. civil marriages, same sex marriages; gives couples security; to have children in a caring relationship; they love each other; religious reasons; legal protection of the relationship; companionship; family tradition; etc.

(b) Discuss (i) the rights and (ii) the responsibilities of a couple within the marriage relationship. (20)

4 points @ 5 marks each (i) rights : to each other’s company; live together as partners; monogamous relationship; to be faithful/loyal to each other; consummate the marriage; non- consummated marriages can be annulled; a sexual relationship with their partner; can inherit from each other (Succession Act 1965); etc. (ii) responsibilities : provide financial support for partner and children; joint guardianship of children; legal duty to provide for the physical, emotional, social, moral and educational needs of the children; work on the relationship to ensure it is functioning; show commitment to the marriage; etc.

(c) Name and give an account of one option available to couples who are experiencing difficulties in their marriage. (15)

Name: 5 marks, Account: 2 points @ 5 marks each Marriage counselling : assists couples to resolve marriage problems before they become grounds for separation or divorce; partners can attend separately/together/with children; confidential service; offered by ACCORD, the Family Support Agency; and independent groups; if there are specific problems e.g. alcohol addiction they can be referred to a more specialised counsellor; etc. Family mediation : a confidential service for couples who have agreed to separate or divorce; may be an alternative to court proceedings; helps couples negotiate an agreement on issues such as parenting arrangements; custody of children; division of finance; property issues; maintenance; funded by the Family Support Agency; etc. Legal separation : can be arranged through mediation if all parties agree on the separation; mediation can avoid court proceedings which are expensive; the terms of the separation are documented in the Deed of Separation; etc. Judicial separation : necessary when the couple cannot agree on the terms of separation; The Judicial Separation Act 1989 sets out the grounds for the separation - adultery, desertion, unreasonable behaviour; normal marital relationships have not existed for at least one year prior to the application; the couple haven’t lived together for one year (agreed separation) or three years (lack of consent); application for judicial separation has to be heard by a judge, if successful he/she will grant a decree of judicial separation; he/she may also make additional orders e.g. extinguishment of succession rights; etc.

Legal nullity : obtained by couples who married in civil or church ceremonies; it is required in order for either spouse to remarry and avoid bigamy; etc. Church nullity: church annulment is granted by the Church after a marriage tribunal has studied and declared the marriage annulled; it has no legal standing so couples are still married; etc. Divorce : the couple have lived apart for four out of the previous five years; there is no realistic possibility of reconciliation; sufficient provision has been made for the spouse and children; under a decree of divorce the court may also make orders in relation to custody and access of children, allocation of property, payment of maintenance, extinguishment of succession rights; when the decree is granted it cannot be reversed; divorce hearing held in Family Circuit Court; etc.

(iii) Suggest three ways to improve the energy efficiency of a kitchen. (15)

3 ways @ 5 marks each timers : time heating to come on just when needed; etc. room thermostats : allows you to reduce the heat by 1or 2 degrees; etc. energy efficient appliances : induction hobs; unplug appliances when not in use; never leave appliances on standby; use full loads; buy appliances with energy efficient labels A or B; etc. energy sources: solar panels, expensive to install but cheap to run; install night saver electricity; etc. windows : triple/double glazed with low emissivity glass; well fitted; draught excluders around windows and doors; etc. bulbs : use low energy CFL light bulbs; turn off lights when not in use; use correct wattage; etc.

and

1.(b) The floor makes up a large part of the surface area of any room and thus has a definite effect on the overall appearance of the room.

(i) Give an account of four factors that should be considered when choosing floor coverings for a family home. (20)

4 factors @ 5 marks each room function; quality; durability; easy to clean and hygienic; insulating properties in relation to warmth and sound; safety, non-slip; type of sub floor; décor; adds atmosphere to the room; cost; size of the room; traffic flow; condition of the floor beneath; aesthetics; occupants; etc.

(ii) Suggest one type of floor covering suitable for a family bathroom. State two properties of the selected floor covering. (10) Name: 4 marks, Properties: 2 @ 3 marks each Tiles: ceramic, slate, terracotta, glazed stone - durable; cold and hard under foot; resistant to water; easy to maintain; variety of colours; non-slip; easy to fit – can be cut to size/shape; etc. Vinyl: durable; easy to clean; hygienic; resilient to water and acid; warm underfoot; relatively non- slip; melts when subjected to heat; marked by furniture/heels; can be purchased in a variety of thicknesses and designs; etc. Wooden flooring: laminated; hard wearing; noisy; low maintenance; hard underfoot; may scratch easily; etc. Safety flooring: e.g. Tarasafe Ultra – slip resistant vinyl floor covering, hardwearing; hygienic and easily maintained; etc.

or

1. (c) Today less people can afford to buy their own home.

(i) Explain why the cost of rental accommodation has increased in urban areas. (12)

3 points @ 4 marks each high demand; low supply; high cost of mortgages; large demand due from college students; housing shortage; difficult to save for a large deposit so people rent for longer; etc.

(ii) Name a suitable type of accommodation for each of the following people: (a) a college student (b ) a person with reduced mobility and (c) an elderly couple. Give one reason for your choice in each case. (18)

Name: 3 @ 3marks each, Reasons: 3 @ 3marks each (a) college student : rented apartment, shared house, digs; campus accommodation; etc. reasons: near college; close to amenities, e.g. shops, public transport; cost; has Wi-Fi; security; shared/own bedroom; study space; storage; etc. (b) person with reduced mobility : single storey house; two storey with a stairs lift; sheltered housing; ramps to main door; etc. reasons : dwelling with no steps; good lighting to avoid falls; non slip flooring; specially adapted bathroom with a shower (seat for safety) and handrails; easy maintenance; close to church, shops, post office, library; have independence with 24 hour assistance available; have monitored alarm system to provide safety and security; panic button; key fob for monitored alarm system; handrails throughout the home; etc. (c) elderly couple : compact single storey dwelling; sheltered accommodation; with family members; flat adjacent to family; etc. reasons : live in town or village close to public transport and amenities if not driving; security; independent living; close to family; easy to maintain; have a small low maintenance garden or patio; etc.

2. (b) Natural fabrics have many advantages over synthetic fabrics.

(i) Write a profile of a natural fabric under each of the following headings: (9)

 fibre production

3 points @ 2 marks each linen : made from the stem of the flax plant; fibres extracted; the seeds are removed; process called retting where flax is soaked in water for several days/weeks; fibres are separated from the woody part; fibres are combed and spun into yarn; longer fibres are called ‘line’ and shorter ones are called ‘tow’; etc. cotton : fibres come from cotton plant; called boll or seed head; white and fluffy; bolls picked by hand; fibres separated from seeds (ginning); pressed into bales; graded according to length; fibres combed and spun into yarn; etc. wool : fleece removed from sheep; graded according to colour, fineness and length of fibres; cleaned and combed; spun into yarn; etc. silk : produced from the silk worm; silk moth lays eggs; worms feed on leaves of mulberry tree; worms spin cocoons of silk; cocoons are heated; soaked and threads are removed; threads wound into reels; spun into thicker yarns; etc.

 how fabric is constructed.

1 point @ 3 marks weaving : warp threads stretched on a loom; weft threads passed over and under the warp from one side of loom to the other; selvedge edge is formed to prevent fraying; etc. knitting : made up of a series of interlocking loops that result in a flexible construction; etc. bonding : two or more fabrics are joined by adhesive; combination of a knit or loosely woven fabric backed by a light weight lining; etc.

(ii) Give two advantages of using natural fibres / fabric in clothing. (6)

2 advantages @ 3 marks each washable; durable; will take a fabric finish; cheaper; absorbent; can be dyed; etc. or

2. (c) ‘I love fashion. I think it’s so important because it’s how you show yourself to the world.’ (Emma Watson, April 2015)

(i) Explain how the media influences the choice of clothing worn by teenagers. (9)

3 points @ 3 marks each television; movies; magazines; surfing the internet; social media; stylists/writers predict trends for seasons; young people want to wear what celebrities are wearing; celebrities/sports celebrities set up their own clothing range; celebrities are photographed wearing clothes by specific designers at media events; many T.V programmes feature makeovers; most Sunday newspapers have fashion features; etc.

(ii) Discuss the contribution of modern footwear to current fashion trends. (6)

2 contributions @ 3 marks each contribute to the overall look; compliment the outfit; create a focal point; update an outfit; help to finish off a look; contrast in colour; balance an outfit; etc.

Elective 3 - Social Studies (80 marks)

Candidates selecting this elective must answer 3(a) and either 3(b) or 3(c).

3. (a) Work has a direct impact on resources such as time and money, and affects the amount of each available for family life.

(i) Explain each of the following:  paid work  unpaid work  voluntary work. (18) 3 points @ 6 marks each Paid work : employment/occupation which is a means of earning an income; for financial gain from working; provides security in the form of pensions, PRSI contributions, holiday and sick pay; a person can be self-employed or employed by another person; it can be full, part-time or temporary; etc. Unpaid work : no financial reward for the work done; mainly done in the home; tasks may include: child care, housework, caring for an elderly parent; person with a disability; can be monotonous; lacks advantages of paid work e.g. sick pay; etc. Voluntary work : working by choice in the community; not for financial gain; working with charity groups; has a higher status than unpaid work; people participate in this work as it is personally rewarding; builds friendships, teamwork, new skills, empathy; etc.

(ii) Discuss the advantages and the disadvantages of students working in part-time. employment. (20)

4 points @ 5 marks each (1 advantage, 1 disadvantage, plus 2 others) Advantages : earn money to fund social life, buy clothes, pay back student loans; have better time management skills; will gain experience in the work place; understand responsibility; not reliant on parent for pocket money; good work ethic leads to attaining a job; etc. Disadvantages : less time for studies; increase absenteeism from class/lectures; obtain lower grades in exams; increase in stress levels; tiredness attending class; little job security; less leisure time; can impact on health; family relationships can suffer; etc.

(iii) How does the Protection of Young Persons (Employment) Act, 1996 protect young people in the labour force? (12)

3 points @ 4 marks each limits the number of hours a young person can work; it is an offence to employ children under 16 years full-time; under 14 years cannot work during school term; during holidays cannot work more than 7 hours per day, 35 hours per week; must have a break of 30 minutes every 4 hours; must have 2 rest days a week; must have 21 free days; 15 year olds must not work more than 8 hours a week during school term; 16/17 year olds must not work more than 40 hours per week; must not work before 6.00am or after 10.00pm; employer must get evidence of a young persons’ age; permission from parent or guardian; keep a register of hours worked; must be paid the National Minimum Wage of €6.06 per hour (under 18 years of age); etc.