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Question 1. Which cmdlet is used to create a new user mailbox in Exchange Online? A) New-MailUser B) New-Mailbox C) Set-Mailbox D) Enable-Mailbox Answer: B Explanation: New‑Mailbox creates a new mailbox for a user, whereas New‑MailUser creates a mail‑user without a mailbox. Question 2. What type of group allows collaboration with shared files, a Planner, and a Teams channel? A) Distribution group B) Mail‑enabled security group C) Microsoft 365 Group D) Dynamic distribution group Answer: C Explanation: Microsoft 365 Groups (formerly Office 365 Groups) provide a shared workspace, including files, Planner, and Teams integration. Question 3. Which property must be set to allow a user to send email as another mailbox? A) Full Access permission Full Access permission only lets a user open the mailbox. B) Send As permission Correct – Send As grants the ability to send messages that appear to come from the target mailbox. C) Send on Behalf permission Send on Behalf shows the delegate’s name in the From line.
D) Owner role in the mailbox Question 4. In Exchange Online, what is the purpose of an address book policy (ABP)? A) To block external email domains B) To define which address lists a user can see C) To enforce password complexity D) To configure mail flow connectors Answer: B Explanation: ABPs limit the address lists (GAL, custom lists) that are visible to specific users. Question 5. Which accepted domain type should be used for a domain that is exclusively hosted in Exchange Online? A) Authoritative B) Internal relay C) External relay D) Shared Answer: A Explanation: An authoritative domain tells Exchange that it is responsible for all recipients in that domain. Question 6. Which protocol is NOT supported for Outlook on the web (OWA) client access? A) MAPI over HTTP B) POP C) Exchange ActiveSync D) IMAP Answer: B
D) Help Desk Answer: A Explanation: Organization Management has full admin rights, including transport rule management. Question 10. When configuring an inbound connector for secure mail flow from a partner organization, which authentication method is recommended? A) Anonymous B) IP‑allow list only C) Mutual TLS (mTLS) D) Basic authentication Answer: C Explanation: Mutual TLS validates both the sending and receiving servers, providing strong security for partner mail flow. Question 11. A transport rule needs to prepend “[Confidential]” to the subject of any email that contains the keyword “salary”. Which condition and action should be used? A) Condition: Subject contains “salary”; Action: Prepend subject with “[Confidential]” B) Condition: Body contains “salary”; Action: Append disclaimer C) Condition: Sender is external; Action: Add header D) Condition: Recipient is a distribution group; Action: Redirect message Answer: A Explanation: The rule directly matches the subject and prepends the required text. Question 12. Which tool can be used to trace a message’s path through Exchange Online transport? A) Get‑MessageTrackingLog
B) Test‑MessageTrace C) Message Trace in the Security & Compliance Center D) New‑TransportRule Answer: C Explanation: Message Trace provides a graphical view of a message’s journey in Exchange Online. Question 13. What is the primary purpose of a “mail‑enabled security group”? A) To provide a shared mailbox B) To control access to resources and also receive email C) To act as a dynamic distribution list D) To host public folders Answer: B Explanation: Mail‑enabled security groups can be used for permissions and can receive email. Question 14. Which architecture component provides high availability for mailbox databases in Exchange Online? A) Database Availability Group (DAG) B) Load‑balancing server farm C) Azure Availability Zones D) Geo‑redundant storage (GRS) Answer: C Explanation: Exchange Online uses Azure Availability Zones to ensure mailbox data redundancy. Question 15. In a hybrid deployment, which wizard establishes the initial trust relationship between on‑premises Exchange and Exchange Online? A) Hybrid Configuration Wizard (HCW)
C) Malware filter – Common attachment filter D) Outbound spam protection – Recipient limit Answer: A Explanation: Connection filtering blocks messages based on the sender’s IP address. Question 19. Which Safe Attachments policy action delivers the original message after scanning? A) Replace B) Dynamic Delivery C) Block D) Quarantine Answer: B Explanation: Dynamic Delivery delivers the message while the attachment is scanned in the background. Question 20. What does the “Zero‑Hour Auto‑Purge (ZAP)” feature do? A) Automatically deletes messages after 30 days B) Moves spam to the Junk folder instantly C) Removes malicious messages from mailboxes after detection D) Purges all messages from a compromised mailbox Answer: C Explanation: ZAP removes newly detected malware from user mailboxes even after delivery. Question 21. Which authentication method is being retired and should no longer be used for client connections? A) OAuth 2. B) Modern Authentication
C) Basic Authentication D) Certificate‑based Authentication Answer: C Explanation: Microsoft is retiring Basic Authentication for Exchange Online. Question 22. Which PowerShell cmdlet creates a new mail‑enabled security group? A) New-DistributionGroup B) New-MailContact C) New-Group – Unified D) New-Recipient – MailEnabledSecurityGroup Answer: D Explanation: The – MailEnabledSecurityGroup switch creates that specific group type. Question 23. In Exchange Online, what does the “Retention Policy” tag “Delete after 5 years” do? A) Moves items to the archive after 5 years B) Permanently deletes items that are older than 5 years C) Marks items as read‑only after 5 years D) Sends a reminder to the user after 5 years Answer: B Explanation: The delete tag removes items from the mailbox after the retention period expires. Question 24. Which of the following is a valid reason to use a “shared mailbox” instead of a regular user mailbox? A) To assign a license‑free mailbox for a team B) To enable external users to send mail as the mailbox C) To store large amounts of archival data
D) To disable attachments on outbound mail Answer: B Explanation: Outbound Spam Protection restricts the volume of messages a user can send to mitigate compromised accounts. Question 28. Which PowerShell command retrieves all mailboxes that have a “Send As” permission granted to a specific user? A) Get-MailboxPermission – Identity [email protected] – AccessRights SendAs B) Get-RecipientPermission – Identity [email protected] – AccessRights SendAs C) Get-ADPermission – Identity [email protected] – ExtendedRights Send As D) Get-RecipientPermission – Identity [email protected] – ExtendedRights Send As Answer: C Explanation: Send As permissions are stored as AD permissions; Get‑ADPermission can list them. Question 29. In a hybrid deployment, which component synchronizes passwords from on‑premises AD to Azure AD? A) Exchange Hybrid Configuration Wizard B) Azure AD Connect C) Microsoft 365 admin center D) Hybrid Agent Answer: B Explanation: Azure AD Connect handles password hash synchronization. Question 30. Which connector type is required to route mail from Exchange Online to an on‑premises Exchange server when using centralized mail transport? A) Inbound connector on Exchange Online
B) Outbound connector on Exchange Online C) Inbound connector on the on‑premises server D) Outbound connector on the on‑premises server Answer: B Explanation: An outbound connector from Exchange Online sends messages to the on‑premises server for centralized transport. Question 31. What does the “MailTips” feature provide to end users? A) Automatic translation of email content B) Real‑time warnings such as large attachment size or external recipients C) Encryption of outgoing messages D) Automatic reply generation Answer: B Explanation: MailTips display contextual warnings before a message is sent. Question 32. Which PowerShell cmdlet is used to create a migration endpoint for a staged migration? A) New-MigrationBatch B) New-MigrationEndpoint C) New-MigrationUser D) New-RemoteMailbox Answer: B Explanation: New‑MigrationEndpoint defines the connection information for the source server. Question 33. Which of the following is NOT a supported migration type to Exchange Online? A) Cutover migration
C) Safe Links D) IRM (Information Rights Management) Answer: A Explanation: OME can be triggered by DLP policies to encrypt messages containing sensitive content. Question 37. Which of the following best describes a “dynamic distribution group”? A) Membership is defined by a static list of recipients B) Membership is calculated at send time based on a query C) It can receive mail but cannot be used for permissions D) It is only used for SharePoint integration Answer: B Explanation: Dynamic groups evaluate a recipient filter each time a message is sent. Question 38. Which PowerShell cmdlet can be used to view the current anti‑spam policy settings for a tenant? A) Get‑SpamFilterPolicy B) Get‑MalwareFilterPolicy C) Get‑OrganizationConfig D) Get‑TransportConfig Answer: A Explanation: Get‑SpamFilterPolicy returns the anti‑spam configuration objects. Question 39. What does the “Message Encryption” policy option “Encrypt messages with a password” require from recipients? A) An Azure AD account B) A shared secret password to decrypt the message
C) A digital certificate installed on their device D) MFA authentication Answer: B Explanation: Recipients must enter the predefined password to open the encrypted email. Question 40. Which of the following is a primary benefit of using “Hybrid Agent” topology? A) Eliminates the need for Azure AD Connect B) Provides full mailbox moves without any on‑premises servers C) Allows mail flow through the cloud while keeping on‑premises transport servers D) Enables direct LDAP authentication from the cloud Answer: C Explanation: Hybrid Agent routes mail through Exchange Online while still using on‑premises transport. Question 41. Which DNS configuration is required for inbound mail flow to Exchange Online? A) CNAME record for autodiscover B) MX record pointing to <domain‑com>.mail.protection.outlook.com C) SRV record for SIP D) TXT record for DKIM Answer: B Explanation: The MX record directs inbound email to Exchange Online Protection. Question 42. What is the default retention period for items in the “Recoverable Items” folder for a mailbox with Litigation Hold enabled? A) 30 days B) 90 days
C) The size of the message in kilobytes D) The number of attachments in the email Answer: A Explanation: SCL is a numeric rating used by EOP to determine spam handling. Question 46. Which feature allows a user to view the version history of a shared mailbox’s messages? A) Litigation Hold B) Mailbox Auditing C) Retention Policies D) In‑Place Archive Answer: B Explanation: Auditing records actions such as reads, deletes, and moves, providing a history. Question 47. Which PowerShell command disables a mailbox’s ability to send external email? A) Set‑Mailbox – ExternalMailEnabled $false B) Set‑MailUser – ExternalEmailAddress $null C) Set‑RemoteMailbox – ExternalAccessEnabled $false D) Set‑Mailbox – RecipientLimits 0 Answer: A Explanation: ExternalMailEnabled controls whether the mailbox can send to external domains. Question 48. What is the purpose of the “Transport Rule Collection” in Exchange? A) To store all active transport rules for a tenant B) To define mailbox database replication topology C) To configure DNS records for mail flow
D) To manage user authentication methods Answer: A Explanation: The Transport Rule Collection contains all defined mail flow rules. Question 49. Which of the following is a requirement for enabling “Safe Links” for Outlook on the web? A) Installing a client‑side add‑in on each workstation B) Enabling the “Safe Links” policy in the ATP portal and ensuring URLs are rewritten C) Configuring a custom DNS server for link resolution D) Deploying a third‑party URL filtering appliance Answer: B Explanation: Safe Links rewrites URLs in messages and checks them at click time; it is enabled via policy. Question 50. Which EOP feature automatically removes messages that contain known phishing URLs after delivery? A) Safe Links – Dynamic Delivery B) Anti‑Phishing – Spoof Intelligence C) Zero‑Hour Auto‑Purge (ZAP) D) Malware Filter – Common Attachment Filter Answer: C Explanation: ZAP removes malicious content, including phishing URLs, even after the message is delivered. Question 51. What does the “Outbound Connector” setting “Restrict permission to the following IP addresses” accomplish? A) Limits which internal servers can send mail through the connector
A) Create migration endpoint → Create migration batch → Start batch → Verify completion B) Install Azure AD Connect → Enable hybrid → Create migration batch → Start batch C) Create remote mailbox → Export PST → Import to cloud D) Deploy Exchange 2019 → Configure DAG → Move mailboxes Answer: A Explanation: Cutover migration uses a migration endpoint, batch creation, then start and monitor. Question 55. Which Exchange Online policy can be used to block the sending of certain file types (e.g., .exe) from user mailboxes? A) Safe Attachments policy B) Transport rule with attachment filter condition C) Anti‑spam policy – Content filter D) DLP policy with file type condition Answer: B Explanation: A transport rule can block or quarantine messages based on attachment file extensions. Question 56. Which PowerShell cmdlet retrieves the current TLS settings for a Send connector? A) Get‑SendConnector – Identity "ConnectorName" | fl TLS* B) Get‑TransportConfig – TLS* C) Get‑ReceiveConnector – Identity "ConnectorName" | fl TLS* D) Get‑MailFlowConfig – TLS* Answer: A Explanation: Send connector TLS properties are accessed via Get‑SendConnector.
Question 57. What is the impact of enabling “Mailbox Auditing” on a user mailbox? A) All mailbox items are automatically encrypted B) All access events (read, send, delete) are logged for compliance review C) The mailbox size limit is increased by 10 GB D) External forwarding is blocked Answer: B Explanation: Auditing records mailbox actions for later analysis. Question 58. Which of the following best describes “Transport Layer Security (TLS) 1. enforcement” in Exchange Online? A) All inbound and outbound mail must be encrypted using TLS 1.2 or higher B) Only messages containing attachments are encrypted C) TLS is optional and can be disabled per connector D) TLS is only used for client‑to‑server connections, not mail flow Answer: A Explanation: Enforcing TLS 1.2 ensures that all mail flow uses strong encryption. Question 59. Which Azure AD feature provides “Self‑service password reset” for cloud‑only accounts? A) Azure AD Connect Health B) Azure AD Password Protection C) Azure AD Self‑Service Password Reset (SSPR) D) Azure MFA Answer: C Explanation: SSPR allows users to reset their passwords without admin involvement. Question 60. In Exchange Online, what does the “Retention tag” “Never delete” do?
