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MIDTERM1 Exam patho,docx Compatibility mode, Exams of Biology

A.T. Still University of Health Sciences (ATSU)Biology

MIDTERM1 Exam patho,docx Compatibility mode

Typology: Exams

2022/2023

Available from 07/26/2023

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MIDTERM
1 Exam
patho,doc
x
Compatibi
lity mode
1. 7. What organic compound facilitates transportation across cell membranes by acting as
receptors, transport channels for electrolytes, and enzymes to drive active pumps?
a. Lipids c. Proteins
b. Proteases d. Carbohydrates
2. 17. Under anaerobic conditions, what process provides energy for the cell?
a. Oxidative phosphorylation c. Lactolysis
b. Glycolysis d. Passive transport
2
3. 13. During cell injury caused by hypoxia, an increase in the osmotic pressure occurs within the
cell because:
a. Plasma proteins enter the cell.
b. The adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase)–driven pump is stronger during hypoxia.
c. Sodium chloride enters the cell.
d. An influx of glucose occurs through the injured cell membranes.
4. 16. In hypoxic injury, sodium enters the cell and causes swelling because:
a. The cell membrane permeability increases for sodium during periods of hypoxia.
b. ATP is insufficient to maintain the pump that keeps sodium out of the cell.
c. The lactic acid produced by the hypoxia binds with sodium in the cell.
P a g e 1 | 21
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MIDTERM

1 Exam

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    1. What organic compound facilitates transportation across cell membranes by acting as receptors, transport channels for electrolytes, and enzymes to drive active pumps? a. Lipids c. Proteins b. Proteases d. Carbohydrates
    1. Under anaerobic conditions, what process provides energy for the cell? a. Oxidative phosphorylation c. Lactolysis b. Glycolysis d. Passive transport
    1. During cell injury caused by hypoxia, an increase in the osmotic pressure occurs within the cell because: a. Plasma proteins enter the cell. b. The adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase)–driven pump is stronger during hypoxia. c. Sodium chloride enters the cell. d. An influx of glucose occurs through the injured cell membranes.
    1. In hypoxic injury, sodium enters the cell and causes swelling because: a. The cell membrane permeability increases for sodium during periods of hypoxia. b. ATP is insufficient to maintain the pump that keeps sodium out of the cell. c. The lactic acid produced by the hypoxia binds with sodium in the cell.

d. Sodium cannot be transported to the cell membrane during hypoxia.

    1. During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because: a. Potassium moves out of the cell, and potassium and sodium are inversely related.

c. Increased plasma oncotic pressure d. Lymphatic obstruction

    1. During acidosis, the body compensates for the increase in serum hydrogen ions by shifting hydrogen ions into the cell in exchange for which electrolyte? a. Oxygen c. Potassium b. Sodium d. Magnesium
    1. It is true that Kussmaul respirations indicate: a. Anxiety is a cause of respiratory acidosis. b. A compensatory measure is needed to correct metabolic acidosis. c. Diabetic ketoacidosis is the cause of the metabolic acidosis. d. More oxygen is necessary to compensate for respiratory acidosis.
    1. Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance? a. Hypokalemia c. Hypocalcemia b. Hyperkalemia d. Hypercalcemia
    1. An excessive use of magnesium-containing antacids and aluminum-containing antacids can result in: a. Hypomagnesemia c. Hyponatremia b. Hypophosphatemia d. Hypokalemia
    1. Two thirds of the body’s water is found in its: a. Interstitial fluid spaces c. Intracellular fluid compartments b. Vascular system d. Intraocular fluids
    1. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of: a. Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin b. Inflammation resulting from an immune response c. Blockage within the lymphatic channel system d. Sodium and water retention
    1. Which clinical manifestations would be expected for a child who has complete trisomy of the twenty-first chromosome?

a. Widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair b. An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat, low-set ears c. High-pitched voice, tall stature, gynecomastia, and an IQ of 60 to 90 d. Circumoral cyanosis, edema of the feet, short stature, and mental slowness

    1. What is the second most commonly recognized genetic cause of mental retardation? a. Down syndrome c. Klinefelter syndrome b. Fragile X syndrome d. Turner syndrome
    1. People diagnosed with neurofibromatosis have varying degrees of the condition because of the genetic principle of: a. Penetrance c. Dominance b. Expressivity d. Recessiveness
    1. The data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 American blacks is an example of which concept? a. Incidence c. Ratio b. Prevalence d. Risk
    1. Which primary characteristic is unique for the immune response? a. The immune response is similar each time it is activated. b. The immune response is specific to the antigen that initiates it. c. The response to a specific pathogen is short term. d. The response is innate, rather than acquired.
    1. Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen? a. Passive-acquired immunity c. Passive-innate immunity b. Active-acquired immunity d. Active-innate immunity
    1. Increased age may cause which change in lymphocyte function?

c. Purified toxins that have been chemically detoxified d. Recombinant pathogenic protein

    1. What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection? a. Reverse transcriptase converts single-stranded DNA into double-stranded DNA. b. It is needed to produce integrase. c. It transports the RNA into the cell nucleus. d. It converts RNA into double-stranded DNA.
    1. How does a faulty negative-feedback mechanism result in a hormonal imbalance? a. Hormones are not synthesized in response to cellular and tissue activities. b. Decreased hormonal secretion is a response to rising hormone levels. c. Too little hormone production is initiated. d. Excessive hormone production results from a failure to turn off the system.
    1. Which mineral is needed for thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) to stimulate the secretion of thyroid hormone (TH)? a. Iron c. Iodide b. Zinc d. Copper
    1. Insulin transports which electrolyte in the cell? a. Potassium c. Sodium b. Calcium d. Phosphorus
    1. What are the effects of aging on pancreatic cells? a. Pancreatic cells are replaced by fat cells. b. Increased insulin production is typical. c. Beta cell production increases. d. No appreciable change occurs on pancreatic cells.
    1. Which is an expected hormonal change in an older patient? a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone secretion below normal b. Triiodothyronine level below normal c. Cortisol level below normal d. Adrenocorticotropic hormone level above normal
    1. The common cause of elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is: a. Ectopically produced ADH c. Posterior pituitary tumor b. Inflammation of the hypothalamus d. Inflammation of the nephrons
    1. The cause of neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is related to an organic lesion of the: a. Anterior pituitary c. Posterior pituitary b. Thalamus d. Renal tubules
    1. The signs of thyrotoxic crisis include: a. Constipation with gastric distention c. Hyperthermia and tachycardia b. Bradycardia and bradypnea d. Constipation and lethargy
    1. A deficiency of which chemical may result in hypothyroidism? a. Iron c. Zinc b. Iodine d. Magnesium
    1. Renal failure is the most common cause of which type of hyperparathyroidism? a. Primary c. Exogenous b. Secondary d. Inflammatory
    1. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as a(an): a. Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues b. Need for lispro instead of regular insulin c. Increase of glucagon secretion from  cells of the pancreas d. Presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy  cells in the pancreas
    1. Regarding the heart’s valves, what is a function of the papillary muscles? a. The papillary muscles close the semilunar valve. b. These muscles prevent backward expulsion of the atrioventricular valve. c. They close the atrioventricular valve. d. The papillary muscles open the semilunar valve.
    1. During the cardiac cycle, why do the aortic and pulmonic valves close after the ventricles relax? a. Papillary muscles relax, which allows the valves to close. b. Chordae tendineae contract, which pulls the valves closed. c. Reduced pressure in the ventricles creates a negative pressure, which pulls the valves closed. d. Blood fills the cusps of the valves and causes the edges to merge, closing the valves.
    1. Oxygenated blood flows through which vessel? a. Superior vena cava c. Pulmonary artery b. Pulmonary veins d. Coronary veins
    1. The significance of the atrial kick is that it affects the contraction of the: a. Right atria, which is necessary to open the tricuspid valve. b. Right atria, which is necessary to increase the blood volume from the vena cava. c. Lef t atria, which increases the blood volume into the ventricle. d. Left atria, that is necessary to open the mitral valve.
    1. The cardiac electrical impulse normally begins spontaneously in the sinoatrial (SA) node because it: a. Has a superior location in the right atrium. b. Is the only area of the heart capable of spontaneous depolarization. c. Has rich sympathetic innervation via the vagus nerve. d. Depolarizes more rapidly than other automatic cells of the heart.
    1. Within a physiologic range, what does an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload) result in? a. Increase in force of contraction c. Increase in afterload b. Decrease in refractory time d. Decrease in repolarization
    1. The Bainbridge reflex is thought to be initiated by sensory neurons in which cardiac location?

a. Atria c. Sinoatrial (SA) node b. Aorta d. Ventricles

    1. What is an expected change in the cardiovascular system that occurs with aging? a. Arterial stiffening b. Decreased left ventricular wall tension c. Decreased aortic wall thickness d. Arteriosclerosis
    1. What physical sign is the result of turbulent blood flow through a vessel? a. Increased blood pressure during periods of stress b. Bounding pulse felt on palpation c. Cyanosis observed on excretion d. Murmur heard on auscultation
    1. What is the major effect of a calcium channel blocker such as verapamil on cardiac contractions? a. Increases the rate of cardiac contractions. b. Decreases the strength of cardiac contractions. c. Stabilizes the rhythm of cardiac contractions. d. Stabilizes the vasodilation during cardiac contractions.
    1. What is the initiating event that leads to the development of atherosclerosis? a. Release of the inflammatory cytokines b. Macrophages adhere to vessel walls. c. Injury to the endothelial cells that line the artery walls d. Release of the platelet-deprived growth factor
    1. What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) in atherosclerosis? a. LDLs cause smooth muscle proliferation. b. LDLs cause regression of atherosclerotic plaques. c. LDLs increase levels of inflammatory cytokines.
    1. Individuals being effectively managed for type 2 diabetes mellitus often experience a healthy decline in blood pressure as a result of what intervention? a. Managed carbohydrate intake b. Appropriate exercise c. Insulin-sensitivity medication therapy d. Introduction of minimal doses of insulin
    1. Aspiration is most likely to occur in the right mainstem bronchus because it: a. Extends vertically from the trachea. b. Is narrower than the left mainstem bronchus. c. Comes into contact with food and drink first. d. Is located at the site where the bronchi bifurcate.
    1. Which normal physiologic change occurs in the aging pulmonary system? a. Decreased flow resistance c. Stiffening of the chest wall b. Fewer alveoli d. Improved elastic recoil
    1. If a patient develops acidosis, the nurse would expect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to react in which manner? a. Shif t to the right, causing more oxygen (O2) to be released to the cells b. Shift to the left, allowing less O2 to be released to the cells c. Show no change, allowing the O2 concentration to remain stable d. Show dramatic fluctuation, allowing the O2 concentration to increase
    1. What is the most important cause of pulmonary artery constriction? a. Low alveolar partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) b. Hyperventilation c. Respiratory alkalosis d. Epinephrine
    1. Where does the tracheal bifurcation occur? a. Larynx c. Carina

b. Bronchi d. Nasopharynx

    1. What is the purpose of the spirometry measurement? a. To evaluate the cause of hypoxia b. To measure the volume and flow rate during forced expiration c. To measures the gas diffusion rate at the alveolocapillary membrane d. To determine pH and oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations
    1. Kussmaul respirations as a respiratory pattern may be associated with which characteristic(s)? a. Alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing b. Pulmonary fibrosis c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease d. Slightly increased ventilatory rate, large tidal volumes, and no expiratory pause
    1. Pulmonary edema and pulmonary fibrosis cause hypoxemia by which mechanism? a. Creating alveolar dead space b. Decreasing the oxygen in inspired gas c. Creating a right-to-left shunt d. Impairing alveolocapillary membrane diffusion
    1. The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with which action? a. Avoidance of the causative agent b. Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics c. Administration of drugs that reduce bronchospasm d. Administration of drugs that decrease airway inflammation
    1. What is the initial step in the management of emphysema? a. Inhaled anticholinergic agents c. Cessation of smoking b. Beta agonists d. Surgical reduction of lung volume
    1. The progression of chronic bronchitis is best halted by which intervention? a. Regular use of bronchodilators

c. The epithelial cell membranes are formed of lipids that are hydrophobic and therefore repel water. d. Receptors on those cell membranes are occupied with a diffusion of amino acids and monosaccharides.

    1. What is the role of the normal intestinal bacterial flora? a. Metabolizing bile salts, estrogens, and lipids b. Breaking down proteins into amino acids c. Facilitating the motility of the colon d. Metabolizing aldosterone and insulin
    1. Which statement is false concerning how abdominal pain is produced? a. Chemical mediators, such as histamine, bradykinin, and serotonin, produce abdominal pain. b. Edema and vascular congestion produce abdominal pain by stretching. c. Ischemia, caused by distention of bowel obstruction or mesenteric vessel thrombosis, produces abdominal pain. d. Low concentrations of anaerobes, such as Streptococci, Lactobacilli, Staphylococci, Enterobacteria, and Bacteroides, produce abdominal pain.
    1. Which statement is consistent with dumping syndrome? a. Dumping syndrome usually responds well to dietary management. b. It occurs 1 to 2 hours after eating. c. Constipation is often a result of the dumping syndrome. d. It can result in alkaline reflux gastritis.
    1. Which statement is false regarding the sources of increased ammonia that contribute to hepatic encephalopathy? a. End products of intestinal protein digestion are sources of increased ammonia. b. Digested blood leaking from ruptured varices is a source of increased ammonia. c. Accumulation of short-chain fatty acids that is attached to ammonia is a source of increased ammonia. d. Ammonia-forming bacteria in the colon are sources of increased ammonia.
    1. Which statement is false concerning the pathophysiologic process of alcoholic cirrhosis?

a. Inflammation and damage leading to cirrhosis begin in the bile canaliculi. b. Alcohol is transformed to acetaldehyde, which promotes liver fibrosis. c. Mitochondrial function is impaired, decreasing oxidation of fatty acids. d. Acetaldehyde inhibits export of proteins from the liver.

    1. Perceived stress elicits an emotional, anticipatory response that begins where? a. Prefrontal cortex c. Limbic system b. Anterior pituitary d. Hypothalamus
    1. During a stress response, the helper T (Th) 1 response is suppress by which hormone? a. ACTH c. Prolactin b. Cortisol d. Growth hormone
    1. Stress-age syndrome directly results in depressed function of which system? a. Respiratory c. Digestive b. Endocrine d. Immune
    1. Stress-induced sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla causes the secretion of: a. Epinephrine and aldosterone c. Epinephrine and norepinephrine b. Norepinephrine and cortisol d. Acetylcholine and cortisol
    1. What are tumor cell markers? a. Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies that are produced by cancer cells b. Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and marked c. Cytokines that are produced against cancer cells d. Identification marks that are used in administering radiation therapy
    1. The function of the tumor cell marker is to: a. Provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer. b. Treat certain types of cancer. c. Predict where cancers will develop.