Download NARM 2026 COMPREHENSIVE TEST PAPER QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
NARM 2026 COMPREHENSIVE TEST PAPER
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS
◉ The purpose of Leopolds is to:. Answer: Determine fetal lie and presentation ◉ All of the following birth defects could be detected by genetic screening, except:. Answer: alpha fetoprotein ◉ Chronic hypertension refers to:. Answer: a pre-existing condition of high blood pressure ◉ For purposes of microbial control, the term sterilization implies:. Answer: destruction of all forms of microbial life ◉ The difference between a disinfectant and an antiseptic is that:. Answer: a disinfectant is used on lifeless objects only, while an antiseptic is used on the skin's surface ◉ Anatomy is defined as:. Answer: the study of the structure and shape of the body and the body parts, and their relationship to one another
◉ Physiology is defined as:. Answer: the study of how the body and its parts work or function ◉ An ultrasound at 12 weeks gestation could establish all the following. Answer: 1) a viable, intrauterine pregnancy
- multiple pregnancy
- presence of fetal abnormalities such as anecephaly ◉ Two hormones the placenta produces are:. Answer: estrogen and progesterone ◉ The essential male hormone responsible for reproduction is:. Answer: Testosterone ◉ In a normal monthly cycle, ovulation occurs around day:. Answer: Day 14 ◉ If conception fails to occur, menstruation takes place as a result of:. Answer: degeneration of the corpus luteum ◉ Which term refers to the externally visible structures of the female reproductive system, which are formed by two folds of fatty tissue covered with skin, extending from the mons pubis anteriorly
◉ The embryonic stage is defined as. Answer: 2-8 weeks ◉ The function of the placenta is to. Answer: provide nutrients ◉ Amniotic fluid does the following:. Answer: absorbs shock, permits fetal movement, maintains fetal temperature ◉ During what period of pregnancy is the baby most susceptible to teratogens (from conception)?. Answer: 2-12 weeks ◉ At what week from conception doe the embryonic period being. Answer: 2 weeks ◉ The fetal stage of development starts at what week?. Answer: 9 weeks ◉ The fetal heartbeat can first be heard with a fetoscope between what weeks?. Answer: 18-20 Weeks ◉ Despite the midwife's best efforts to give care to a mother who is a survivor of sexual abuse, she has continued to have severe emotional problems. The midwife questions the wisdom of a home birth for her. Before jumping to conclusions, the midwife would:. Answer:
discuss her concerns with the mother's backup physician as to how to best proceed ◉ To properly take an accurate basal body temperature to determine ovulation, a woman should do all of the following:. Answer: use a basal thermometer take temperature after 5-6 hours of uninterrupted sleep take it before any activity, even going to the bathroom ◉ A typical human gestation from conception is how many days?. Answer: 266 ◉ The midwife has just checked the fundus of a woman who gave birth 45 minutes ago and finds it is firmly contracted. The mother is happily nursing her new baby. What hormone is most likely being released that will assist uterine involution?. Answer: oxytocin ◉ All of the following are contraindications to labor induction. Answer: Invasive cervical carcinoma, unexplained vaginal bleeding, active genital herpes infection ◉ What essential vitamin is a strict vegan mother most likely to be deficient in?. Answer: B
◉ Frequency of contractions is timed from:. Answer: Beginning of one contraction to beginning of the next ◉ Contractions that are a sign of active labor will:. Answer: Increase when walking ◉ Irregular contractions with no dilation are a sign of:. Answer: laten/false labor ◉ The following are true about the fetal skull. Answer: 2) the sagittal suture is the antero-posterior division between the parietal bones
- the biparietal diameter is the largest transverse diameter of the head
- the bitemporal is the greatest distance between the two temporal structures ◉ A woman is in labor. The midwife does Leopold's maneuvers and finds a ballotable prominence in the mother's right lower quadrant, a firm narrow prominence in the pelvis, barely palpable back to the mother's left, firm prominence in the mother's upper left quadrant, and FHT midline below the maternal umbilicus. Which of the following is true?. Answer: The baby is presenting shoulder ◉ At what age do breastfed infants need to start receiving iron supplementation through food or iron drops?. Answer: 6 months
◉ What is associated with the android pelvis?. Answer: Narrow pubic arch ◉ The innominate bone of the pelvis are. Answer: ischium, illiim, pubic ◉ The relationship of the fetal head to it's trunk is. Answer: attitude ◉ The part of the fetus which lies at the pelvic brim or in the lower pole of the uterus tells the. Answer: presentation ◉ What is the most acceptable form of charting. Answer: SOAP notes ◉ _______ is not recommended as a component of self-care in pregnancy?. Answer: freely indulge in favorite foods ◉ Bleeding in the second/third trimester would most often indicate:. Answer: placenta previa ◉ Which diagnostic screening test carries the highest risk of spontaneous pregnancy loss?. Answer: amniocentisis
◉ What is a sign of placental separation?. Answer: cord does not retract when pressing above the pubic bone ◉ Upon palpating the ovaries during a pelvic exam the midwife would expect ovaries to be:. Answer: almond sized and somewhat tender ◉ The Sims position is when the birthing person:. Answer: left side laying ◉ The lithotomy position is when the birthing person. Answer: is flat on her back with legs in stirrups ◉ The period during labor between complete dilation and the onset of active effective pushing is called. Answer: The resting phase ◉ Late decelerations are thought to be cause by. Answer: uteroplacental insufficiency ◉ Early decelerations are thought to be caused by. Answer: Head compression
◉ variable decelerations are thought to be cause by. Answer: cord compression ◉ A fetal heart rate that consistently stays the same with no variations is considered. Answer: silent ◉ When examining the placenta and cord the midwife is mainly checking for:. Answer: abnormalities ◉ When performing an emergency episiotomy the midwife must cut:. Answer: during a contraction as the head crowns ◉ The episiotomy cut said to heal the fastest is. Answer: midline ◉ Immediately after the delivery of the placenta it is important to:. Answer: massage the uterus ◉ Something that may keep the uterus from contracting is:. Answer: a full bladder ◉ Respiratory distress in the newborn is evinced by:. Answer: 1) tachypnea
- grunting
- insuction
- physiologic jaundice is expected on the third and fourth days
- pathological jaundice appears within the first 24 hours or persists past the 7th day ◉ The following is not true about the character of an infant's cry. Answer: a persistent inconsolable cry is common in infants before the milk comes in ◉ If the client continues to hemorrhage in third stage, the most important thing is to. Answer: get the placenta out ◉ If a baby is delivering in face presentation, he must rotate to. Answer: mentum anterior position ◉ The midwife has been at Mary's house for one hour. Upon arrival, she was 2 cm, BP 130/84, and FHT was 152. She is experiencing contractions as very painful and flinches noticeably when her abdomen is touched. The midwife has just taken FHT again one hour later and find them to be 100. BP is 90/60. She would most suspect. Answer: placental abruption ◉ Veronica is a G5P4 who is in hard labor at home. She was 9 cm an hour ago, and now she has involuntary grunting with the last contraction and asks the midwife if she can push. The midwife tells
her:. Answer: "If it feels good, go ahead and push, if it does not feel good, don't push yet" ◉ When delivering a breech, as the body begins to deliver, the midwife should:. Answer: Keep hands off the breech until the birth of the umbilicus ◉ After a shoulder dystocia, once the baby is out, which of the following are most likely to occur?. Answer: hemorrhage and need for full newborn resuscitation ◉ What is the most important nutrient of the pregnant and lactating woman by helping to build strong muscles, adequate blood volume, and healthy skin?. Answer: Protein ◉ Which of the following is essential in building blood volume levels of hemoglobin and assists in metabolism of protein?. Answer: Iron ◉ What is essential in the intrauterine development of the bones, brain and nervous system, teeth and gums, as well as proper blood circulation?. Answer: calcium ◉ The fetal stage is defined as. Answer: 9-40 weeks
◉ The heart begins beating in the embryo during which week from conception. Answer: 4 weeks ◉ A risk factor that may appear as a pre-existing medical disorder would be. Answer: active sexually transmitted infection ◉ normal adult blood pressure for a pregnant person is. Answer: 90/50-140/ ◉ in pregnancy blood volume expands by:. Answer: 40%-45% ◉ Purpose of Leopold's Maneuvers. Answer: Determine what is in the pelvis ◉ Marked tachycardia in a fetus is defined as. Answer: heart rate above 180 ◉ The three classic signs of pre E are:. Answer: 1) Elevated blood pressure
- Generalied edema
- proteinuria ◉ a woman suffering from eclampsia may experience:. Answer: oliguria
◉ oliguria is. Answer: low urine output ◉ According to the Brewer Diet and Anne Frye, pregnant women should ideally consume how many grams of protein a day?. Answer: 80 - 100 grams ◉ softening of the cervix is a sign of pregnancy called. Answer: Goodell's sign ◉ ___________ is not associated with SGA babies.. Answer: hydrocephalus ◉ The chorion layer of the amniotic sac:. Answer: directly encircles the amnion layer of the amniotic sac ◉ A typical human gestation from LMP is how many days?. Answer: 280 ◉ The vaginal portion of the cervix that dilates during labor is called:. Answer: external os ◉ Profuse bleeding from the uterus, especially between periods, is called. Answer: metrorrhagia
◉ What is the most frequent reason for seizures in the neonatal period?. Answer: hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy ◉ What is hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy. Answer: a type of brain dysfunction that occurs when the brain doesn't receive enough oxygen or blood flow for a period of time ◉ Using the 5 digit Para system, what does 2 2 0 3 1 signify?. Answer: 2 term, 2 preterm, 0 abortions, 3 living children, 1 multiple birth ◉ The uterine endometrium during pregnancy is called the:. Answer: decidua ◉ A rubella titer of >1:64 indicates:. Answer: infection ◉ early ambulation following birth may cause. Answer: hypotensive episodes ◉ Risk of Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS) is slight whenever the concentration of lecithin in amniotic fluid is at least how many times greater than sphingomyelin?. Answer: two times
◉ The most ominous fetal heart tone finding would be:. Answer: repeated late deceleration with loss of short-term fetal heart variability ◉ The first stage of labor is defined as. Answer: onset of true contractions to full dilation ◉ In clinical pelvimetry, if the pelvis is adequate, the angle of the pubic arch should be at least:. Answer: 90 degrees ◉ The basic shape of the anthropoid pelvis is:. Answer: anterior/posterior oval ◉ The basic shape of an android pelvis is:. Answer: heart ◉ The ischial spines of the pelvis are. Answer: prominent ◉ the pubic arch of the platypelloid pelvis is. Answer: >90 degrees ◉ The gynecoid pelvis is. Answer: most conductive to a vaginal birth ◉ Eutocia is defined as. Answer: a normal labor
