Download NBCE Physiotherapy Test Plan Practice Exam: Questions and Answers and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!
Question 1. Which of the following components is most important when obtaining the chief complaint during the subjective assessment? A) Vital signs B) Duration of symptoms C) Family medical history D) Past surgical procedures Answer: B Explanation: The duration of symptoms helps establish the acuity of the problem and guides further questioning and examination. Question 2. A patient reports worsening low back pain after a fall, accompanied by urinary retention. Which flag does this represent? A) Red flag B) Yellow flag C) Green flag D) Blue flag Answer: A Explanation: Urinary retention after trauma suggests possible cauda equina syndrome, a serious condition requiring immediate medical attention. Question 3. During a gait assessment, the therapist observes a “trendelenburg sign.” This finding most likely indicates weakness of which muscle group? A) Hip extensors B) Hip abductors C) Knee flexors D) Ankle dorsiflexors Answer: B
Explanation: A Trendelenburg sign reflects insufficient gluteus medius/minimus activity, leading to pelvic drop on the contralateral side. Question 4. Which of the following radiographic views is best for evaluating a suspected scaphoid fracture? A) Anteroposterior (AP) wrist B) Lateral wrist C) Oblique wrist D) Scaphoid (thumb) view Answer: D Explanation: The dedicated scaphoid view (U‑spike) improves visualization of the scaphoid waist, where fractures commonly occur. Question 5. In the inflammatory phase of tissue healing, which cellular activity predominates? A) Fibroblast proliferation B) Collagen remodeling C) Neutrophil infiltration D) Myofibroblast contraction Answer: C Explanation: Neutrophils are the first responders, clearing debris and releasing cytokines that initiate healing. Question 6. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to the use of therapeutic ultrasound? A) Acute inflammation B) Pregnancy over the abdomen C) Chronic tendinopathy
B) Plan C) Procedure D) Progress Answer: B Explanation: “P” denotes the Plan, outlining treatment goals, interventions, and follow‑up. Question 10. Which of the following best describes the physiological effect of cryotherapy on acute soft‑tissue injury? A) Increases metabolic rate B) Enhances collagen synthesis C) Reduces nerve conduction velocity D) Promotes vasodilation Answer: C Explanation: Cold reduces nerve conduction velocity, decreasing pain transmission and spasm. Question 11. A 45‑year‑old male with a history of uncontrolled diabetes presents with a painful foot ulcer and elevated ESR. Which systemic condition should be considered? A) Gout B) Osteomyelitis C) Rheumatoid arthritis D) Peripheral arterial disease Answer: B Explanation: Diabetes predisposes to infection; an elevated ESR and ulcer raise suspicion for osteomyelitis.
Question 12. Which phase of the gait cycle is characterized by the foot being flat on the ground while the body moves over the stance limb? A) Initial contact B) Mid‑stance C) Terminal swing D) Pre‑swing Answer: B Explanation: Mid‑stance involves full foot contact and forward progression of the body over the supporting leg. Question 13. The “Hawkins‑Kennedy” test is used to assess which shoulder pathology? A) Posterior labral tear B) Subacromial impingement C) Anterior instability D) Biceps tendon rupture Answer: B Explanation: The test reproduces impingement of the supraspinatus tendon under the coracoacromial arch. Question 14. Which of the following statements about the “pain gate” theory is correct? A) Pain signals are amplified at the spinal cord level. B) Large‑diameter fibers inhibit transmission of nociceptive signals. C) Peripheral inflammation reduces pain perception. D) Central sensitization eliminates the need for peripheral input. Answer: B Explanation: Activation of large‑diameter A‑β fibers can close the “gate,” reducing nociceptive transmission.
Answer: C Explanation: Early proprioceptive training (e.g., wobble board) promotes joint stability before high‑load strengthening. Question 18. Which imaging modality provides the best visualization of soft‑tissue structures such as intervertebral discs? A) Plain radiography B) Computed tomography (CT) C) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D) Bone scintigraphy Answer: C Explanation: MRI offers excellent contrast for soft tissues, enabling assessment of disc morphology and nerve root impingement. Question 19. In the context of the “FITT” principle for exercise prescription, what does the “I” represent? A) Intensity B) Interval C) Incline D) Isometric hold time Answer: A Explanation: FITT stands for Frequency, Intensity, Time, and Type; “I” denotes the level of effort or load. Question 20. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for a patient with acute lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow)? A) Corticosteroid injection B] Immediate surgical release
C) Rest, ice, and activity modification D) High‑intensity resistance training Answer: C Explanation: Conservative care with rest, cryotherapy, and activity modification is first‑line for acute tendinopathy. Question 21. A 30‑year‑old female presents with pain localized to the medial aspect of the knee, worsened by climbing stairs. Which structure is most likely involved? A) Patellar tendon B) Medial collateral ligament (MCL) C) Medial meniscus D) Iliotibial band Answer: C Explanation: Medial meniscal pathology often produces pain on weight‑bearing activities such as stair climbing. Question 22. Which of the following laboratory findings is most suggestive of an acute gout flare? A) Elevated serum calcium B) Increased serum uric acid C) Low serum ferritin D) High creatine kinase Answer: B Explanation: Hyperuricemia predisposes to monosodium urate crystal deposition, triggering gout attacks. Question 23. In a manual therapy technique, “grade III mobilization” is defined as:
Question 26. Which of the following statements about the “red flag” of unexplained weight loss in a musculoskeletal patient is true? A) It is a typical sign of osteoarthritis. B) It may indicate underlying malignancy or systemic disease. C) It is irrelevant to physiotherapy assessment. D) It suggests a psychosocial barrier to recovery. Answer: B Explanation: Unintended weight loss can be a sign of serious systemic pathology, warranting further medical evaluation. Question 27. Which of the following muscles acts as the primary internal rotator of the hip? A) Gluteus maximus B) Gluteus medius C) Tensor fasciae latae D) Gluteus minimus Answer: D Explanation: The gluteus minimus, together with the internal obturator, provides primary internal rotation of the femur. Question 28. In evaluating a patient with suspected carpal tunnel syndrome, which electrodiagnostic test is most definitive? A) Surface EMG of forearm flexors B) Nerve conduction study of the median nerve C) MRI of the wrist D) Ultrasound measurement of the carpal tunnel
Answer: B Explanation: Median nerve conduction studies assess latency and amplitude, confirming compression within the carpal tunnel. Question 29. Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of interferential current (IFC) therapy? A) Chronic low back pain B) Acute myocardial infarction C) Knee osteoarthritis D) Post‑operative scar tissue Answer: B Explanation: IFC can affect cardiac conduction; it is contraindicated in patients with recent myocardial infarction. Question 30. A therapist wants to improve a patient’s lumbar extension mobility. Which joint motion should be emphasized during the intervention? A) Posterior pelvic tilt B) Anterior pelvic tilt C) Lateral flexion to the left D) Right rotation Answer: B Explanation: An anterior pelvic tilt opens the lumbar extension angle, facilitating increased extension range. Question 31. Which of the following best describes the “principle of specificity” in exercise prescription? A) Training should be performed at the highest possible intensity. B) Adaptations are specific to the type of stimulus applied.
Question 34. In the context of the “biopsychosocial model,” which factor is considered a “yellow flag”? A) Fracture on imaging B) Fear‑avoidance beliefs C) Elevated blood pressure D) Active infection Answer: B Explanation: Yellow flags are psychosocial obstacles, such as fear of movement, that may impede recovery. Question 35. Which of the following is the most appropriate method for measuring shoulder internal rotation range of motion? A) Goniometer with the patient supine, arm abducted 90° B) Inclinometer with the patient seated, arm at side C) Tape measure from fingertip to C7 vertebra D) Visual estimation during functional tasks Answer: A Explanation: The supine, abducted position isolates glenohumeral internal rotation and allows accurate goniometric measurement. Question 36. Which of the following statements about the “principle of overload” is correct? A) It states that training must be performed at a low intensity to avoid injury. B) It requires progressive increase in stress to elicit physiological adaptation. C) It emphasizes the importance of rest over exercise. D) It suggests that only aerobic exercise benefits musculoskeletal health. Answer: B
Explanation: Overload necessitates gradually increasing load, volume, or intensity to stimulate adaptation. Question 37. A 55‑year‑old man with chronic knee osteoarthritis is prescribed a home exercise program. Which of the following exercises is most appropriate to improve joint stability? A) High‑impact jogging B) Open‑chain knee extension with heavy load C) Closed‑chain mini‑squats within pain‑free range D) Passive stretching of the quadriceps for 30 seconds each Answer: C Explanation: Closed‑chain, low‑impact strengthening enhances peri‑articular muscle support without excessive joint stress. Question 38. Which of the following is the primary purpose of a “SOAP” note? A) To bill insurance companies B) To provide a standardized record of patient care C) To replace verbal communication among clinicians D) To serve as a legal contract with the patient Answer: B Explanation: SOAP notes organize subjective, objective, assessment, and plan data, facilitating clear documentation. Question 39. During a neurological exam, a patient demonstrates a positive Babinski sign. Which level of the nervous system is implicated? A) Peripheral nerve B) Cervical spinal cord C) Corticospinal tract (upper motor neuron)
B) Activation of a muscle group inhibits the opposing muscle group. C) Simultaneous contraction of agonist and antagonist increases joint stability. D) Reflexive muscle tone is independent of voluntary contraction. Answer: B Explanation: When an agonist contracts, inhibitory interneurons reduce activity in the antagonist, allowing smooth movement. Question 43. Which of the following is a common adverse effect of prolonged static stretching? A) Increased muscle strength B) Decreased tendon stiffness C) Reduced neuromuscular activation D) Enhanced joint proprioception Answer: C Explanation: Extended static stretching can temporarily diminish muscle spindle sensitivity, leading to reduced activation. Question 44. A 22‑year‑old athlete presents with anterior knee pain that worsens with squatting and prolonged sitting. Which condition is most likely? A) Patellofemoral pain syndrome (runner’s knee) B) Anterior cruciate ligament tear C) MCL sprain D) Iliotibial band syndrome Answer: A Explanation: Patellofemoral pain syndrome typically presents with peripatellar pain aggravated by loading the joint in flexion.
Question 45. Which of the following best describes the “principle of joint play” in orthopedic assessment? A) The amount of active range a patient can achieve voluntarily. B) The passive accessory movements that occur at the joint capsule and ligaments. C) The degree of muscular strength surrounding a joint. D) The speed at which a joint can be moved during functional tasks. Answer: B Explanation: Joint play refers to the accessory, non‑osteokinematic movements that allow normal joint motion. Question 46. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to manual therapy involving high‑velocity thrust? A) Mild lumbar sprain B. Cervical arterial insufficiency (vertebral artery disease) C) Chronic neck pain D) Post‑operative scar tissue Answer: B Explanation: High‑velocity thrust in the cervical spine can precipitate vertebral artery injury in patients with known arterial disease. Question 47. In which phase of tissue healing is collagen remodeling most prominent? A) Inflammatory B) Proliferative C) Maturation (remodeling) D) Degenerative Answer: C
D) Control scapular elevation Answer: B Explanation: The rotator cuff dynamically centers the humeral head, ensuring joint stability throughout movement. Question 51. Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of moist heat packs? A) Chronic muscle spasm B) Acute inflammation with erythema C) Post‑stroke spasticity D) Osteoarthritis of the knee Answer: B Explanation: Applying heat to inflamed tissues can exacerbate swelling and pain. Question 52. In the evaluation of a suspected Achilles tendon rupture, which clinical test is most reliable? A) Thompson (calf squeeze) test B) Anterior drawer test of the ankle C) Tinel’s sign over the tendon D) Posterior drawer test of the knee Answer: A Explanation: Squeezing the calf should produce plantarflexion; absence indicates a rupture. Question 53. Which of the following best describes the “principle of reciprocity” in gait? A) Simultaneous activation of all lower‑extremity muscles. B) Alternating limb movements to maintain balance. C) Constant speed throughout the gait cycle. D) Symmetrical foot placement in each step.
Answer: B Explanation: Reciprocity refers to the opposite limbs moving in alternating phases to provide efficient locomotion. Question 54. Which of the following is the most appropriate frequency for applying therapeutic ultrasound for acute tendonitis? A) 1 MHz continuous mode, 5 minutes per session B) 3 MHz pulsed mode, 10 minutes per session C) 1 MHz pulsed mode, 8 minutes per session D) 3 MHz continuous mode, 12 minutes per session Answer: C Explanation: Pulsed ultrasound at 1 MHz delivers low‑intensity energy suitable for acute inflammatory conditions. Question 55. A patient with a history of chronic low back pain reports increased anxiety about returning to work. Which “yellow flag” does this represent? A) Fear‑avoidance beliefs B) Smoking habit C) Diabetes mellitus D) High blood pressure Answer: A Explanation: Psychological fear of movement or re‑injury can impede functional recovery. Question 56. Which of the following is the most accurate description of “lever system” class III in human movement? A) The load is between the fulcrum and effort (e.g., calf raise). B) The effort is between the load and fulcrum (e.g., biceps curl).
