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Nephrology minimals, multiple choice
Typology: Exams
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1. In obstructive uropathy A. The presence of polyuria rules out obstruction. B. The absence of hydronephrosis on ultrasound examination rules out urinary tract obstruction. C. Infection is a frequent complication. D. Hypertension is uncommon. E. Renal tubular acidosis (RTA), type IV, may occur. - ✔ce 2. Membranous nephropathy A. May occur as a result of a systemic illness or be a primary (intrinsic) disorder B. Merits an evaluation for malignancy when found in a patient older than 50 years C. Infrequently improves without treatment D. Does not recur in the transplanted kidney E. Is the most common cause of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome in adults - ✔ab 3. Features of magnesium depletion include A. Hypokalemia B. High serum parathyroid hormone levels C. Prolongation of the PR and QT intervals D. Amelioration of cardiac toxicity of cardiac glycosides E. Can occur with aminoglycoside administration - ✔acde 4. Which of the following statements is/are true about the renal hypoperfusion syndromes?
A. Salt avidity and hyperreninemia are usually observed. B. Effective circulating volume has a greater effect on systemic BP than does renin secretion in the setting of renal hypoperfusion. C. Occlusive disease causes renal hypoperfusion, elevated renin secretion, and hypertension in the setting of a normal effective circulating volume. D. Unilateral renal occlusive disease is not associated with azotemia if the contralateral kidney maintains normal function. E. Nephrotoxic agents (cyclosporine, amphotericin B, radiocontrast dyes) can cause acute renal vasoconstriction with renal hypoperfusion, increased salt avidity, and azotemia. - ✔abcde 5. Normal pregnancy is associated with: but GFR and renal blood flow does increase In the answers they said it was false A. Increased glomerular filtration rate and renal blood flow B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Hypouricemia D. Mild non anion gap-type metabolic acidosis E. Slight increase in BP - ✔bc 6. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning creatinine clearance? A. Creatinine clearance normally exceeds "true" measurements of GFR. B. Cimetidine and trimethoprim can block the secretory component of creatinine clearance. C. Urinary creatinine excretion is primarily influenced by the muscle mass in the steady state. D. The secretory component of creatinine excretion may become more apparent when serum creatinine concentrations are elevated. E. Creatinine clearance is linearly related to the serum creatinine concentration. - ✔abcd
✔abe 10. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning the anemia of end-stage renal disease (ESRD)? A. Erythropoietin deficiency is primarily related to the loss of renal mass. B. Iron deficiency and hyperparathyroidism are important causes of resistance to erythropoietin response. C. Overcorrecting the hematocrit (i.e., above 36%) can increase mortality in this population of patients. D. Increased release of oxygen from hemoglobin is an important factor in the adaptation to anemia in chronic renal failure. E. Erythropoietin reduces blood transfusion requirements and will reduce the incidence of iron-overload and transfusion-related infections in the ESRD population. - ✔abcde 11. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning chronic ambulatory peritoneal dialysis? A. Relatively reduced peritoneal surface limits the usefulness of this approach in children. B. Insulin-dependent diabetics have severe problems with glycemic control because of the large amounts of glucose absorbed from the peritoneal dialysate. C. Dialysis clearance of large molecules (molecular weight >800 kD) is enhanced with peritoneal dialysis. D. The overall dialysis efficiency is similar for hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis if the duration of dialysis is considered (12 hours/week for hemodialysis vs. continuous dialysis with the peritoneal approach). E. Peritonitis is a common problem with continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis and is usually caused by gram-negative organisms. - ✔cd 12. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tissue typing and renal transplantation? A. Siblings with the same biologic parents have a 25% chance of being human leukocyte antigen (HLA) incompatible.
B. By definition, a true biologic parent shares 1 HLA haplotype with each child. C. In vitro cytotoxicity tests do not predict rejection in the transplant setting. D. MHC class II antigens, expressed on B lymphocytes and vascular endothelial cells, are pivotal in the rejection process. E. Mandatory sharing of six antigen-matched cadaver kidneys with the best matched recipient will dramatically improve graft survival for nearly all transplant recipients. - ✔abd 13. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning cyclosporine? A. This agent has dramatically improved renal allograft survival. B. The use of more specific, targeted immunosuppressants (cyclosporine, OKT3) has reduced the incidence of opportunistic infections. C. Cyclosporine markedly slows the recovery from acute tubular necrosis (ATN) and potentiates the adverse effects of other nephrotoxic agents. D. Side effects of cyclosporine include nephrotoxicity, tremor, hyperglycemia, hypertension, and hyperkalemia. E. Calcium-channel blockers, including verapamil and diltiazem, increase serum concentrations of cyclosporine. - ✔abcde 14. Which of the following statements about membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) is/are true? A. MPGN does not recur after renal transplantation. B. This clinico-pathological entity occurs primarily in young adults. C. Hypocomplementemia may be severe. D. MPGN may be a primary (intrinsic) renal lesion or may occur in systemic illnesses, including hepatitis B antigenemia and other infections and systemic lupus erythematosus. E. The incidence of primary (intrinsic) MPGN is increasing. - ✔bcd 15. Which of the following statements about hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) is/are true?
B. Normal-sized kidneys C. Anemia out of proportion to azotemia D. Sterile pyuria E. Papillary necrosis - ✔cde
A. Crystals seen on urinalysis confirm their formation in the kidney. B. Treatment of all patients with renal calculi should include a high fluid intake (minimum 2 L) if tolerated. C. Hexagon-shaped crystals in the urine are always pathologic. D. Magnesium ammonium phosphate crystals (struvite) are associated with urinary tract infections with urea-splitting organisms. E. Alkalinization of the urine with potassium citrate may be effective in preventing the formation of both uric acid and calcium stones. - ✔bcde 27. Which of the following statements about autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is/are true? A. ADPKD is the most common hereditary disease in the United States. B. Hepatic cysts support the diagnosis of ADPKD. C. Although half of the offspring of one affected parent will inherit the gene that produces ADPKD, expression of the disease is variable. D. Renal calculi are uncommon in ADPKD. E. Microscopic and macroscopic hematuria can occur. F. The incidence of intracranial aneurysms is higher in patients with ADPKD than in the general population. - ✔abcef 28. Episodic gross hematuria may be associated with which of the following: A. IgA nephropathy B. Cyclophosphamide therapy C. Analgesic nephropathy D. Sickle-cell disease E. Henoch-Schönlein's disease - ✔abcde 29. Clinical features of the syndrome of acute glomerulonephritis include
A. Hypertension B. Hypercholesterolemia C. RBC casts in the urinary sediment D. Edema E. Hypoalbuminemia - ✔acd 30. Causes of acute glomerulonephritis associated with hypocomplementemia include A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis C. Wegener's granulomatosis D. Infective endocarditis E. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome - ✔abd 31. Disease states associated with profound salt retention along with low fractional sodium excretion include A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Acute tubular necrosis C. Acute interstitial nephritis D. Hepatorenal syndrome (HRS) E. Hypovolemic shock - ✔ade 32. Common causes of ATN are A. ß-lactam antibiotics B. Aminoglycoside antibiotics C. Cholesterol embolic disease
B. Poststreptococcal acute glomerulonephritis has an excellent prognosis for recovery. C. Glomerulonephritis can develop after either skin or pharyngeal streptococcal infections. D. A, B, and C E. Only A and C - ✔d 39. The MOST common intrinsic (primary) glomerular lesion is: A. Anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM) glomerulonephritis B. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis C. Amyloidosis D. IgA nephropathy E. Focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis - ✔d
B. Is rarely bilateral C. Does not occur in native kidneys in renal transplant recipients D. Infrequently metastasizes unless the tumor size is >3cm E. None of the above - ✔d
Sodium 135 mEq/L Potassium 4.2 mEq/L Chloride 109 mEq/L Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L Glucose 5.6 mmol/L Calcium 2.7 mmol/L Phosphorus 1.4 mmol/L Albumin 4.0 g/dL Urine chemistries Creatinine clearance 55 mL/minute Urine protein 6.2 g/day Hematocrit 29% Tests to perform at this point to make a diagnosis might include A. Urine immunofixation electrophoresis B. Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy C. Serum immunofixation electrophoresis D. Urine protein electrophoresis E. A, B, and C F. A, B, C, and D - ✔e
Hemoglobin trace Sediment unremarkable Urine output over the past 12 hours was 60 mL. Which study do you perform now to assist with the diagnosis? A. Renal ultrasound B. Kidney biopsy C. Selective renal arteriogram D. 24-hour urine for protein and immunofixation electrophoresis E. None of the above - ✔a
✔b