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Dominate your NMC test! Get 70+ realistic 2026/2027 practice questions with expert explanations. Master NMC Code principles, fitness to practice, revalidation, and professional accountability. Aligned with the latest UK standards. NMC Code, Nursing exam prep 2026, NMC practice questions, NMC standards proficiency, NMC revalidation
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Description: Dominate your NMC test! Get 70+ realistic 2026/2027 practice questions with expert explanations. Master NMC Code principles , fitness to practice, revalidation, and professional accountability. Aligned with the latest UK standards. Download your free high-scoring guide now!
Instructions: This examination assesses a comprehensive and critical understanding of the regulatory, ethical, and professional frameworks governing contemporary nursing and midwifery practice in the United Kingdom. Read each question carefully and select the single best answer. Time allowed: 150 minutes. Section A: The Governance and Mandate of the Nursing and Midwifery Council
professional conduct. C. A series of idealistic aspirations that are not always attainable in real-world practice. D. A contractual document that primarily governs the relationship between the nurse and their employer. Answer: B Explanation: The Code is the definitive statement of professional standards. It provides the fundamental principles and rules that all registrants must integrate into their daily practice, irrespective of setting, role, or seniority. It is the constant reference point for professional accountability.
unprofessional conduct anywhere it is identifiable with the profession. This includes behaviour on social media, in the community, and in private life, not just during working hours. Section C: The Educational Continuum: From Registration to Revalidation
known, and document the discussion. C. Only communicate details if the patient explicitly asks what went wrong. D. Provide a full and final explanation of cause and liability immediately. Answer: B Explanation: The professional duty of candour requires open, timely, and compassionate communication. It is a process, not a one-off event. It involves an initial apology and explanation, with ongoing updates as more information becomes available through the investigation. It is separate from legal determinations of blame.
Answer: C Explanation: This integrates "Prioritise people" (respecting autonomy) with "Practise effectively" (using evidence). The nurse’s role is not to endorse or dismiss but to support informed choice, ensure safety, and act as a coordinator of care, keeping the wider multidisciplinary team informed as necessary.
Answer: C Explanation: Respecting confidentiality is a fundamental expression of respect for a person’s autonomy, privacy, and dignity. It upholds their right to control personal information, forming a cornerstone of the trust inherent in the therapeutic relationship.
20. In a situation involving a vulnerable adult under safeguarding procedures, the ‘duty of confidentiality’ may be lawfully breached. The Code justifies this primarily by appealing to the principle of: A. Preserving safety and preventing harm. B. Simplifying multi-agency communication. C. Reducing organisational liability. D. Upholding family wishes. Answer: A Explanation: The duty to share information for safeguarding purposes is a necessary exception to confidentiality, justified by the higher ethical and legal imperative to prevent serious harm to a vulnerable person. This is explicitly supported by the "Preserve safety" pillar. 21. A nurse is asked by a family member for an update on a patient’s condition over the phone. The patient has not given explicit consent for this. The nurse’s action, per the Code, should be to: A. Provide a general update as the caller is a relative. B. Verify the caller’s identity and then disclose the information. C. Politely decline, explaining the duty of confidentiality, and suggest the family member speak directly to the patient. D. Ask the ward clerk to handle the call. Answer: C Explanation: Confidentiality is owed to the patient. Without the patient’s explicit consent or a legal basis (e.g., a lasting power of attorney for health), information cannot be disclosed. The nurse must uphold this standard and facilitate appropriate communication channels.
22. The legal statute that most directly enforces the professional duty of candour on healthcare organisations in England is: A. The Mental Capacity Act 2005 B. The Health and Social Care Act 2008 (Regulated Activities) Regulations 2014 C. The Human Rights Act 1998 D. The Data Protection Act 2018 Answer: B Explanation: Regulation 20 of the Health and Social Care Act 2008 (Regulated Activities) Regulations 2014 imposes the statutory duty of candour on service providers (e.g., NHS trusts). The NMC Code enforces the professional duty on individual practitioners, aligning with this legal requirement. 23. When obtaining consent for care, the nurse’s role, as defined by the Code and legal precedent, is to: A. Assume consent is implied by the patient’s presence in the healthcare setting. B. Ensure the process is led by a doctor, as they provide the treatment. C. Act as an advocate to ensure the patient is genuinely informed and their decision is voluntary. D. Obtain a signed consent form for every intervention. Answer: C Explanation: Consent is a process, not a form. The nurse has a vital role in assessing understanding, providing tailored information, checking for voluntariness, and escalating concerns about capacity, thereby ensuring consent is valid and aligned with the principle of "Prioritise people." 24. According to the Code and the Mental Capacity Act 2005, the foundational principle when supporting a person who may lack capacity is to: A. Make decisions based on their clinical best interests immediately. B. Assume the person has capacity unless it is established they lack it. C. Defer all decisions to the next of kin. D. Restrict their liberty to ensure safety. Answer: B
Answer: C Explanation: The Code requires registrants to escalate unresolved concerns that threaten patient safety. External prescribed bodies (like regulators) are the appropriate next step, providing a protected pathway for whistleblowing that upholds the duty to "Preserve safety."
28. In an environment of resource constraint, the Code guides a nurse to manage competing priorities by: A. Providing less thorough care to all patients to ensure fairness. B. Focusing only on tasks with direct measurable outcomes. C. Using professional judgement, communicating risks transparently, and advocating for safe staffing and resources. D. Strictly following routine without adaptation. Answer: C Explanation: The Code does not lower standards due to system pressures. It requires the nurse to practise effectively within constraints, make risk-based decisions, document concerns, and fulfil their advocacy role by challenging unsafe conditions through proper channels. 29. The use of social media by a nurse becomes a fitness to practise issue under the Code when a post: A. Is made from a personal account. B. Expresses a personal political opinion. C. Breaches confidentiality, discriminates, or brings the profession into disrepute. D. Discusses general workplace frustrations anonymously. Answer: C Explanation: The key test is whether the online conduct breaches the fundamental standards of the Code. Posts that identify patients, are bullying or discriminatory, or seriously damage public trust can lead to regulatory action, regardless of privacy settings or intent. 30. The NMC’s stance on conscientious objection is that a nurse: A. Must never allow personal beliefs to influence professional practice. B. Can refuse any procedure they personally disagree with. C. Has a limited right to object, but must ensure patient care is not compromised and refer
promptly to another practitioner. D. Should only object in writing to their line manager. Answer: C Explanation: The right to conscientious objection is narrowly defined in law (e.g., for abortion or fertility treatment). Even then, the nurse’s primary duty is to the patient; they must not abandon care and must ensure a timely and effective referral is made.
31. When supervising a nursing student, the registered nurse’s accountability, per the Code, means they are: A. Only accountable for their own direct actions. B. Accountable for the appropriate delegation, supervision, and standard of care provided by the student. C. Not accountable, as the student is supervised by their university mentor. D. Only accountable if they personally witness an error. Answer: B Explanation: The registrant remains fully accountable for any task they delegate, including to a student. They must ensure the task is suitable, the student is sufficiently supervised and competent to attempt it, and the overall care remains safe. 32. ‘Advocacy’ as required by the Code primarily involves: A. Representing the views of the multidisciplinary team to the patient. B. Acting to uphold the patient’s rights, best interests, and wishes. C. Ensuring hospital policies are followed without exception. D. Promoting the nurse’s own clinical judgement over patient choice. Answer: B Explanation: Advocacy is a core nursing role centred on the patient. It means speaking up for, supporting, and empowering the patient, especially when they are vulnerable or their voice is not heard, ensuring their rights and preferences are central to care.
36. The NMC’s ‘Future Nurse’ standards emphasise ‘professional values.’ These are first and foremost demonstrated through: A. Academic achievement. B. Technical skill proficiency. C. Compassion, respect, and partnership with people. D. Adherence to hierarchical structures. Answer: C Explanation: The ‘Future Nurse’ proficiencies place professional values and behaviours at their core. These values—compassion, dignity, respect, and advocacy—are the bedrock of the nurse- patient relationship and underpin all technical competencies. 37. A nurse’s fitness to practise can be called into question due to a health condition. The NMC’s approach in such cases should be to: A. Automatically suspend the registrant. B. Focus on whether the condition is being managed so it does not pose a risk to the public. C. Publicise the details of the condition. D. Mandate immediate retirement. Answer: B Explanation: The NMC’s approach to health matters is supportive and rehabilitative where possible. Panels consider medical evidence, the registrant’s insight, adherence to treatment, and any adjustments to determine if safe practice can be maintained, aiming for a return to work where appropriate. 38. The principle of ‘justice’ in ethical decision-making, as applied through the Code, requires a nurse to: A. Treat all patients exactly the same. B. Allocate time and resources fairly, based on clinical need and without discrimination. C. Always prioritise the youngest patients. D. Defer to family requests to maximise benefit. Answer: B Explanation: Justice involves fairness and equity. In nursing, this means making impartial,
needs-based decisions about care priorities and advocating for fair access to services, challenging discrimination or unequal treatment wherever it is observed.
39. A nurse witnesses a colleague being bullied by another senior staff member. The Code’s requirement to ‘Promote professionalism and trust’ obligates the nurse to: A. Avoid involvement to prevent becoming a target. B. Take appropriate action, such as supporting the colleague and reporting the behaviour through proper channels. C. Confront the bully directly and publicly. D. Discuss it only with other peers informally. Answer: B Explanation: A professional culture requires challenging unprofessional behaviours that harm staff wellbeing and, by extension, patient safety. The nurse has a duty to act supportively and report such conduct, fostering a culture of respect and trust. 40. The NMC’s ‘Code’ and ‘Standards’ are considered ‘living documents.’ This means they are: A. Fixed and unchanging for a decade. B. Subject to periodic review and update to reflect changes in practice, technology, and public expectations. C. Only applicable to newly qualified nurses. D. Guidelines that can be adapted by individual employers. Answer: B Explanation: To remain relevant and effective, the NMC engages in regular consultation to review and update its standards. This ensures they reflect contemporary evidence, emerging roles, societal values, and new challenges in healthcare. 41. In a situation of suspected patient abuse, the nurse’s primary legal and ethical duty is to: A. Conduct a full investigation themselves. B. Share information promptly with the appropriate safeguarding lead. C. Confront the suspected abuser immediately.
44. The ‘Bolam Test’ and its later refinements in law relate to the standard of care owed by professionals. In nursing, this standard is now most clearly articulated and operationalised by the: A. Employer’s local policies. B. Opinions of expert witness nurses. C. NMC’s Code and standards of proficiency. D. General Medical Council guidance. Answer: C Explanation: While the Bolam Test historically defined the standard as that of a responsible body of professional opinion, the NMC’s published standards now provide a clear, objective benchmark against which a nurse’s conduct is measured in both regulatory and civil proceedings. 45. When a nurse makes an error, the Code requires that they: A. Immediately inform their defence union. B. Act immediately to rectify any harm, report the error to an appropriate person, and document it fully. C. Only document it if the patient was harmed. D. Discuss it confidentially with a colleague but not officially report it. Answer: B Explanation: This is a direct application of the duty of candour and "Preserve safety." The immediate focus must be on patient welfare, followed by transparent reporting to enable organisational learning and risk mitigation, and accurate documentation. 46. The NMC’s position on accepting gifts from patients is that: A. All gifts must be politely refused. B. Gifts of significant value must be declined to avoid compromising the professional relationship; small tokens of gratitude may be accepted following local policy. C. All gifts should be donated to a ward fund. D. Gifts are a private matter with no professional implications. Answer: B Explanation: The guiding principle is that the professional relationship must not be exploited or appear to be influenced. Policies typically require declaration or refusal of substantial gifts, while
allowing for the sensitive acceptance of low-value tokens that are a normal part of therapeutic relationships.
47. The ‘triage’ function of the NMC’s Fitness to Practise process involves: A. Deciding guilt or innocence. B. Making an initial assessment to screen out cases that do not meet the threshold for impairment or are not about a registrant. C. Informing the registrant’s employer immediately. D. Referring all cases directly to a full hearing. Answer: B Explanation: The triage stage is a crucial filtering mechanism. It ensures that only cases that genuinely raise a question about a registrant’s current fitness to practise proceed to investigation, protecting registrants from unnecessary stress over low-level or unfounded concerns. 48. A nurse working in a research study has an ethical duty, per the Code, to ensure participants: A. Are not told about potential risks to avoid anxiety. B. Are selected based on convenience for the research team. C. Give fully informed, voluntary consent and can withdraw at any time. D. Are not from vulnerable groups. Answer: C Explanation: Research nursing integrates clinical and ethical duties. Upholding the principle of "Prioritise people" requires rigorous adherence to informed consent protocols, protecting autonomy and welfare, in line with the Declaration of Helsinki and national research governance frameworks. 49. In end-of-life care, the principle of ‘prioritising people’ may conflict with ‘preserving safety’ when a patient with capacity refuses life-sustaining treatment. The nurse’s role is to: A. Override the refusal as it is not in their best interest. B. Respect the valid refusal, ensure comfort, and provide psychological support. C. Delay treatment until a psychiatrist assesses capacity.
